During the period of greek rule over modern day Iran, there was a process of religious sincretism that came about during the Hellenistic periode. After the Parthian conquest, the greek cultural influence began to fade over time and attempts to purge what remained was even done by the Sassanians.
My question is had the greek cultural influence lasted longer in the region,(by having a longer greek rule) lasting up to at list the beginning of the first century AD
How would this affect Zoroastrianism, and how different would it be from that of Achaemenid times?
My question is had the greek cultural influence lasted longer in the region,(by having a longer greek rule) lasting up to at list the beginning of the first century AD
How would this affect Zoroastrianism, and how different would it be from that of Achaemenid times?