Good question would be: Why does Germany want colonies? Bismarck saw rightly that they were useless and a waste of money.
Prestige. Wilhelm II saw all the other great powers had colonies and wanted some for himself.
Good question would be: Why does Germany want colonies? Bismarck saw rightly that they were useless and a waste of money.
Only very few did that, actually. The Elsässer only became alienated by the Germans after 1871, because they were often seen as second-class citizens, "stupid provincials" and the like. They always had a very strong local identity, but nevertheless deemed themselves German until the end of the 19th century.Yes, but French rule started in 1648; by 1870, Alsatian identity was strongly tied to France, and many Alsatians called themselves French.
That's not quite true. For most of the time of German rule over these territories, the Germanisation policy was rather lax. Poles were allowed to learn Polish at school, Polish publication weren't banned and official documents have been given out in Polish too. It was only under Bismarck in the Kulturkampf era, that the Polish language and culture was oppressed and marginalised - which, paradoxically, led to a revival of the Polish national identity.Consider the fact that while France managed to "disappear" it's minority languages, Germany for 150 years could not do the same in Posen and West Prussia, despite following largely identical policies.
As I said, the Elsässer indeed deemed themselves German - but if you treat people in a way like the Elsässer had been treated after 1871, they will naturally start to dislike you. A very good modern example for this process would be today's Catalonia, where ~70% would approve of independence from Spain currently.It is far easier to create or reinforce a national identity than it is to replace one, and that is why Germany could not Germanize Posen, but France could Francize Alsace.
Only very few did that, actually. The Elsässer only became alienated by the Germans after 1871, because they were often seen as second-class citizens, "stupid provincials" and the like. They always had a very strong local identity, but nevertheless deemed themselves German until the end of the 19th century.
That's not quite true. For most of the time of German rule over these territories, the Germanisation policy was rather lax. Poles were allowed to learn Polish at school, Polish publication weren't banned and official documents have been given out in Polish too. It was only under Bismarck in the Kulturkampf era, that the Polish language and culture was oppressed and marginalised - which, paradoxically, led to a revival of the Polish national identity.
As I said, the Elsässer indeed deemed themselves German - but if you treat people in a way like the Elsässer had been treated after 1871, they will naturally start to dislike you. A very good modern example for this process would be today's Catalonia, where ~70% would approve of independence from Spain currently.
I already explained why: While the Prussians/Germans had been rather lax in their efforts of assimilation of the Poles, the French had been very strict in their efforts of assimilating the Elsässer. Had the French used the same policies that the Prussians used, the Elsass would even today still be majority Germanophone - and had the Prussians from the very beginning done the same that the French did after WW1, there wouldn't have been any Polish-speaking population anymore by ~1850.Then, in your opinion, why is it that Germanization failed but Francization succeeded? And in this case, why would it succeed in Lorraine?
I already explained why: While the Prussians/Germans had been rather lax in their efforts of assimilation of the Poles, the French had been very strict in their efforts of assimilating the Elsässer. Had the French used the same policies that the Prussians used, the Elsass would even today still be majority Germanophone - and had the Prussians from the very beginning done the same that the French did after WW1, there wouldn't have been any Polish-speaking population anymore by ~1850.
There is, however, one example in Germany of how successful such forced assimilation can work over time: The so-called "Ruhrpolen". They were forced to germanise their names, prohibited from speaking Polish in public, forced to learn German at school and a lot of other things - by ~1920-1930, the Polish identity and language in the Ruhr area had pretty much completely vanished.
Except, after the 1880s, as you mentioned, Germanization intensified very strongly, but this only triggered a Polish backlash.
The Greeks have been quite effective in this manner in assimilating Slav Macedonians who live in what is now Greece around Thessaloniki too. As well as Bulgarians farther east. And Russians in the Baltic States are now being subjected to forced Latvianization, Lithuanianization and Estonianization, which will probably be effective at least for the younger generation unless Russia gets the Baltics back.
Unless there is a religious rallying point like Catholicism was for Poles in Russia or Islam is for Islamic immigrants to Europe--or Judiaism---, assimilation can be quite effective.
I will make it both short and easy to understand:[...]
I will make it both short and easy to understand:
- If you implement lax assimilation policies, it won't cause much trouble, but will take extremely long for the target population to assimilate.
- If you implement "half-baked" assimilation policies, it can cause both big trouble and take three or more generations for the target population to assimilate.
- If you implement extreme assimilation policies, it could cause revolts, foreign outcry (and under some circumstances even intervention), but the target population might be assimilated after two generations, perhaps even before that point.
And that's why Germany indeed can germanise all of Lothringen.
- France prohibited any use of the German language within Elsass-Lothringen after WW1. Germany never did this with Polish, not even during the more strict times at the end of the 19th century.Then how were France's assimilation policies extreme, and Germany's half-baked?
Had the Prussians started in the 18th century, and with the extreme policies of the French, they could have easily achieved this by ~1850. Luckily for the Poles, Friedrich der Große was a liberal, not a nationalist.It seems unlikely to me, to say the least, that by 1940, with no changes, Posen or West Prussia would be German-dominant, given that the first two generations saw literally no demographic change whatsoever.
I actually addressed the whole topic in my previous posts, you simply choosed to ignore them. With the Ruhrpolen, I even gave you an actual historical example - which you ignored as well.More importantly, you have not addressed any of my points.
- France prohibited any use of the German language within Elsass-Lothringen after WW1. Germany never did this with Polish, not even during the more strict times at the end of the 19th century.
- France dispelled every German-speaking inhabitant of Elsass-Lothringen who settled there after 1871. Germany never did this with the Polish population (not until WW2, at least).
Had the Prussians started in the 18th century, and with the extreme policies of the French, they could have easily achieved this by ~1850. Luckily for the Poles, Friedrich der Große was a liberal, not a nationalist.
I actually addressed the whole topic in my previous posts, you simply choosed to ignore them. With the Ruhrpolen, I even gave you an actual historical example - which you ignored as well.
It may not be an issue of Germany did or did not do. It may be a question of the local cultural/religious issues at hand. Ireland and Quebec were two strongly Catholic regions brought under British rule. In Ireland, the Church itself promoted the use of English by the mid-19th century. Conversely, in Quebec the church remained strongly francophone. Ireland become English-speaking while Quebec did not.
I'm not sure what the attitude of the clergy was in the Polish areas of Prussia, but given that Prussia was a Lutheran kingdom discriminating against Catholics, it wouldn't surprise me if the church discouraged assimilation. Also, Poles had a distinct national identity based on Poland's long existence as a kingdom before its partition in the 1790s.
There was a very strong religious element towards the Kulturkampf. Bismarck himself was not especially fond of Catholics; which led to their discrimination in the Kulturkampf. This also affected German Catholics, mostly living in the Rhineland. I do not think the Kulturkampf occurred to any great extent outside of Prussia however.