Well, the French involvement in Post-WW2 Decolonization as we know was not a rather smooth affair. Madagascar, Vietnam, and Algeria being the least graceful of these events. Is it possible for France to go cold turkey after the Second Great War?
I wish I could remember who, but sometime back somebody on this site pointed out that the original French negotiator (Admiral somebody?) was replaced (?because he died in a crash?). The new guy was much more hardline and that caused the talks with Ho to go down the tubes. Keep the original guy in place, and a negotiated independence for Vietnam is probably possible early on.It could'nt go the British route no, unlike the others it since the 19th century viewed (northern) Algeria as integral parts of France and had been coming to view all of its colonies and territories as such.
You could have them decide to establish a prgoram of gradual independence for Indochina, Madagascar and parts or all of West Africa, legally recognizing them as autonomous and gradually devolving more and more power while ensuring a smooth transition until they become fully independent, though Indochina would require it to be much faster than West Africa.
Algeria however the French are'nt gonna let go without a fight anymore than say Argentina would let go of Patagonia.
IOthers have pointed out the the US was pretty anti-colonial in WWII, and that the OSS actively worked with Ho. US support for an independent Vietnam wouldn't so much involve a change in policy as a lack of change in policy. (It might well require Ho to include some non-communists in a 'Popular Front' government...)
Just to throw out a numer, I think it would be politically and culturally impossible for the French to assimilate Muslims exceeding 25% the total population of France proper, at least not in a big "lump": by 1925 Algeria already has about 15% France's population. I don't think you can bring on European-type demographics in time with 20th century PODs.
Bruce
Just to throw out a numer, I think it would be politically and culturally impossible for the French to assimilate Muslims exceeding 25% the total population of France proper, at least not in a big "lump": by 1925 Algeria already has about 15% France's population. I don't think you can bring on European-type demographics in time with 20th century PODs.
Bruce
Right, and there won't be any resistance at all.Sure you can. Avoid WW1. Almost any POD that does that will fix the issues. By 1940, you are looking at easily 2 million more French men. And then there is the flood of other Europeans from other countries that can be attracted to Algeria. So there are plenty of Europeans. By say 1950, we are looking at about 10 million people in Algeria IOTL with around 1 million Europeans and 1 million Arabs that are not Muslim. So 20% that can be attracted to remain loyal to France. You would need a program to attract Europeans, but by 1950, you could be looking at 1/3 pro France. Enough to control and hang on. Assume 3 million European, 1 million Arabs not Muslim, and 8 million Muslim. Since France gave rights such as voting to people who became Christians and learned French, the number of Muslims will decline over time. It is not a easy colony to keep, but it is doable.
You will see the same pattern over and over. WW1 demographic and financial changes undermining settler colonies and potential settler colonies.
So Algeria was like the French Ireland?
Right, and there won't be any resistance at all.
That's the problem here, resistance will happen, and it doesn't need to be armed, either.
So Algeria was like the French Ireland?
Huh, is there any reasonable way for this to actually go through? Seems like an interesting point of divergence. What would the likely knock-on effects be if even a limited form like this was introduced?France's government in the 1930s (I think it was Blum) tried to offer enfranchisement to Algerians, but was met with widespread opposition over fears of "Islamicizing" or Arabizing France's identity. Even then, it was mostly suggested to be offered to WWI veterans, educated Algerians, and of course those who had assimilated and converted to Christianity. Not to mention that the Pied Noirs would have a huge issue of seeing their political base in the Algerian Departments be eroded by enfranchisement.
Huh, is there any reasonable way for this to actually go through? Seems like an interesting point of divergence. What would the likely knock-on effects be if even a limited form like this was introduced?
Seperately it kind of reminds me of the mooted idea to form a 'French' majority Oran region by having all the Pied-Noirs, Algerian Jews, and Harkis move there as a kind of mini-Algeria that would become independent as mentioned in this thread. Supposing that the limited franchise idea was introduced and it makes the later Algerian Revolution even messier thanks to an enlarged French aligned faction, might the French government be more receptive to an independent or still part of France Oran if they'd played their cards a bit better?
Split the difference? Grant the limited franchise but still make them follow the secular law. Perhaps dress it up as a kind of bond of military service/Français par le sang versé for those that served in France during the Great War or that join the police or military in Algeria to appeal to the right. I don't have the in-depth knowledge of France of the period to know how plausible that would be so just throwing out ideas since it seemed like an interesting point of departure. If it's just not feasible though then it's just not feasible.Right wing opposition was so widespread that it was unfeasible to pull off without a significant PoD. Blum essentially wanted to give space for Sharia for Muslim citizens, instead of forcing them to follow secular law.
Split the difference? Grant the limited franchise but still make them follow the secular law. Perhaps dress it up as a kind of bond of military service/Français par le sang versé for those that served in France during the Great War or that join the police or military in Algeria to appeal to the right. I don't have the in-depth knowledge of France of the period to know how plausible that would be so just throwing out ideas since it seemed like an interesting point of departure. If it's just not feasible though then it's just not feasible.![]()
If a Muslim Algerian had accepted to follow French law instead of Sharia, then they were granted full rights of citizenship, including voting. However, this means essentially that the Muslims who do so are Apostates, which is why very few ever decided to do so other than those who converted.
Like I said previously, Anti-Clericalism has to be mitigated for the French state to work with Islamic jurisprudence, which means changes have to be made such as the 1905 law on the Separation of Church and State, or the Jules Ferry Laws which secularized education. Even then, this isn't a guarantee that French bigotry towards Islam doesn't manage to screw things up with the indigenous population.
Is Shari'a law such a deal-breaker? After all, _most_ Muslim countries OTL post-decolonization ended up with mainly secular legal systems, IIRC.
Bruce