Germany conquers Poland without Trouble

What if Britain and France had opted not to declare war on Germany over the partition of Poland?

I'm thinking France gets distracted by dipping its toes in the Spanish Civil War and is unable to respond - the British meanwhile opt against acting alone.
 

Deleted member 94680

Wouldn’t France “dipping its toes” into the SCW end up being a proxy war against Germany though? Once proxy wars begin, in the pre-nuclear age, full-on conflict tends to follow. A German invasion of Poland would see a French response, surely.

Where France leads, Britain follows?
 
France having dipped its toe and gettign into a proxy war with 'Facist' forces (yes I know Franco was not techncially speaking Fascist) begin's serious rearmament earlier than OTL and the French Government resigns itself to the idea that another major war is looming

Perhaps having backed the republicans France has a better relationship with Stalin?

No Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact in 1939

As Stenz says Britain cannot act alone on the Continent and follows Frances lead

Come 1940 the French Airforce is far stronger and its Army more modernised

Without war in 1939 and much of 1940 both 'Entente' nations are not suffering the impact to their trade etc
 
Russia may ally with Germany, who begins making further demands but now on Romania and Hungary. It also allows the UK and France to modernize more though does not correct their tactical flaws. France may last longer though not by much, especially as the Fw190 and Panzer IV emerge in numbers. If Belgium begins producing what later became the FN49 and Germany gets a chance to copy it or the French 600mph fighter falls into German hands the war becomes very interesting for all the wrong reasons.
 
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