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I noticed a post elsewhere that said that the only way for the Germans to win in the East was to start on the 'old' Polish/Russian border. That is: no German/Russian Pact.
Which got me thinking - how could this be?
The Pact was there to counter the possiblity of Russia joining the Anglo-French guarrantee to Poland.
There was a 'guarrantee' because Poland felt threatened due to German demands over Danzig.

But WI (like Austria) in Poland there was a faction that was attracted to the anti-semite, & anti-communist tirades of Hitler, and was able to achieve power in Poland (perhaps with German help).
Whether this occurred after or before the Czech takeover, wouldn't matter much.
Either way, Poland becomes an active member of the Axis, and internal news is directed at the Russians rather than the Germans.

At this point, with little to worry about from Western interference and with the addition of the Polish Army, but short military supplies, equipement and raw material; does German:
a) demand the return of A-L from the French - to provoke a War, or
b) strike East against Russia?

B strikes me as being a bit iffy - re: on-the-job-training.
Yet with 'A' who knows depending on the Government of the time the French may agree or indeed join in 'B'!!??

Any comments?
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