Tirpitz (in his memiors) stated that at some point before the war Germany shoud have given territory back to Denmark in exchange for a naval / economic agreement. So here goes:
Let say in 1912, Germany gives Denmark territory (lets say Denmark gets most of but not quite the post WW1 boundry) in exchange for the right to base German naval, marine and defensive artillery units in Denmark only in the event of war between Germany and either England or Russia, in addition Germany has first rights to 100% of Danish exports in such a war. No Danish army or naval units have to serve outside of Denmark but are expected to defend the country and its territorial waters.
Questions:
1) Is this ASB???? (would both countries really agree to such a thing)
2) How much advantage would this really have given Germany????
Let say in 1912, Germany gives Denmark territory (lets say Denmark gets most of but not quite the post WW1 boundry) in exchange for the right to base German naval, marine and defensive artillery units in Denmark only in the event of war between Germany and either England or Russia, in addition Germany has first rights to 100% of Danish exports in such a war. No Danish army or naval units have to serve outside of Denmark but are expected to defend the country and its territorial waters.
Questions:
1) Is this ASB???? (would both countries really agree to such a thing)
2) How much advantage would this really have given Germany????