What is the relationship between naval and air superiority during the Second World War? Could Germany, for example, have rendered the Royal Navy inoperable in the channel assuming that they decisively defeated the RAF and made extensive use of torpedo bombers?
From my understanding the aircraft carrier was king precisely because, assuming air superiority could be acquired, the torpedo bomber was most effective at dispensing with even the most gargantuan capital ships. Why was this same logic not applicable to nations like Italy and Germany against the RN given the abundance of airbases with which they could operate the bombers?