What if we handwave that George III comes to a position of actively favoring conciliation with the colonists and prefers bending over backward to no antagonize them. I don't care why he does, he just does.
Let's further say this is the case from 1771 onward.
How will the situation in America evolve?
And even more interesting to me, how will English politics evolve with a King that is not backing up the fiscal supremacy of the Westminster parliament in America?
Would George III find himself in serious hot water with some parliamentary majority, or at least need to change his whole set of political patronage alliances within the UK to support his soft-on-America approach?
Is there any danger that the Westminster parliament as an institution could get so upset at the King not backing up their supremacy that *they* end up suspecting his motives may be a re-run of Charles-ish behavior and the parliament rebels?
Let's further say this is the case from 1771 onward.
How will the situation in America evolve?
And even more interesting to me, how will English politics evolve with a King that is not backing up the fiscal supremacy of the Westminster parliament in America?
Would George III find himself in serious hot water with some parliamentary majority, or at least need to change his whole set of political patronage alliances within the UK to support his soft-on-America approach?
Is there any danger that the Westminster parliament as an institution could get so upset at the King not backing up their supremacy that *they* end up suspecting his motives may be a re-run of Charles-ish behavior and the parliament rebels?