French victory at Oudenaarde -War of Spanish Succession

From what little I know of the war of Spanish Succession, in 1708, the war was basically a stalemate, with all sides weary. At the battle of Oudenaarde, the French suffered a demoralizing, crushing defeat, which put France into dire straits. This loss was, from many accounts, enabled by difficulty of command between the Duke of Burgundy (the nominal commander) and the able actual commander Vendome.
So what if Burgundy plays his role as a royal prop allowing Vendome do do his business and achieve a victory. Let's add in a bonus of Marlborough being killed in action. How does the rest of the war play out? Britain is now the demoralized party, and United Provinces (Netherlands) is the desperate one. Can all parties agree to end the war now, more or less with OTL outcome. Austria is likely not to get Spanish Netherlands, so I'm guessing France takes some and maybe turns the rest into a buffer duchy? Or does France get greedy and push for too much, thus prolonging the war? Loss of Marlborough and retention on Vendome (OTL he took the fall for the defeat and no longer commanded for France) alters the military situation.
 
Louis XIV by this time had wanted to find a way out of the war as his government's finances were in terrible shape. Perhaps a big victory changes his outlook, but I'm not sure. The main obstacle to peace was the Grand alliance's insistence that Louis go to war against his own grandson in Spain. If they lose at Oudenaarde I suppose they don't have the leverage to make that demand. My guess is a peace settlement similar to OTL though I'm not sure about the Spanish Netherlands. France won't lose Ypres at any rate.
 
Louis XIV by this time had wanted to find a way out of the war as his government's finances were in terrible shape. Perhaps a big victory changes his outlook, but I'm not sure. The main obstacle to peace was the Grand alliance's insistence that Louis go to war against his own grandson in Spain. If they lose at Oudenaarde I suppose they don't have the leverage to make that demand. My guess is a peace settlement similar to OTL though I'm not sure about the Spanish Netherlands. France won't lose Ypres at any rate.
It appeared in 1708 that Philip held a large part of Spain, while the allies controlled part and a part was muddled. It doesn't seem like the Allies had the oomph needed to dislodge Philip, and this was born out OTL. Hence their demand that France help evict Philip. They couldn't do it on their own, even with France standing down. Only after Charles is the last Habsburg standing in Austria (making the only option for a Habsburg king is a Spanish-Austrian union, which, of course, is out of the question) and a few more years of losing blood and money did the Brits decide that Philip was ok on the Spanish throne. But in 1708, all that is in OTL future. Even with the blow in Oudenaarde, will Britain decide it's not worth the effort to dislodge Philip, and recognize it may not happen no matter what?
The anti war faction in Britain is going to be out in full force, especially if France follows up the victory by continued success at securing Flanders. Perhaps it's time for the old pretender to make another stab at a Stuart restoration?
What does control of Flanders do for France's ability to harass British/Dutch shipping?
If everyone decides to just call it a day in 1709-1710, France likely retains control of Acadia (all the way to the Kennebec?), and possibly wrangles rights in Hudsons Bay. If France can develop Acadia a bit, this is a game changer on British ability to take Canada in future conflicts.
 
thought I would add a new wrinkle to the story. It's sort of related, but only tangentially.

With France advancing in Flanders, the Dutch are looking frantic. The anti-war party in England is in the ascendancy, and the Jacobites decide to make another go of it, even though they are fresh off a defeat. The Old Pretender James is off to join them, but befalls tragedy en route. Louisa Maria is now the Jacobite heir. With her country in disarray, Queen Anne offers to adopt Louisa as official heir as part of a peace settlement. Louis XIV, seeing an opportunity, encourages Louisa, even if it means conversion of religion. Louisa, seeing her inheritance as Queen at the hands of the Jacobites an iffy proposition, accepts Anne's proposal. Louisa, if she has any pragmatic sense, likely marries a Protestant, and raises her kids Protestant, even if she doesn't personally convert.

plausible?
 
Who would she marry? Aside from that the war isn't probably going to end in 1708, but Louis was willing to make peace with some concessions and an earlier end to the war coming off of a significant French victory would get him better terms but I figure that Louis would prioritize keeping European territory over the colonies so there'd probably need to be some additional victories for Louis to keep Acadia and Nova Scotia.
 
From what little I know of the war of Spanish Succession, in 1708, the war was basically a stalemate, with all sides weary. At the battle of Oudenaarde, the French suffered a demoralizing, crushing defeat, which put France into dire straits. This loss was, from many accounts, enabled by difficulty of command between the Duke of Burgundy (the nominal commander) and the able actual commander Vendome.
So what if Burgundy plays his role as a royal prop allowing Vendome do do his business and achieve a victory. Let's add in a bonus of Marlborough being killed in action. How does the rest of the war play out? Britain is now the demoralized party, and United Provinces (Netherlands) is the desperate one. Can all parties agree to end the war now, more or less with OTL outcome. Austria is likely not to get Spanish Netherlands, so I'm guessing France takes some and maybe turns the rest into a buffer duchy? Or does France get greedy and push for too much, thus prolonging the war? Loss of Marlborough and retention on Vendome (OTL he took the fall for the defeat and no longer commanded for France) alters the military situation.
Why did Louis XIV send his grandson with so little military experience to be nominal commander? His youth alone may have made him vain about ceding to Vendome's experienced advice. Why did he not send his son the Grand Dauphin who had previous military experience as well as maturity on his side that might lead him to listen to the advice of Vendomne?
 
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