French Sea Mammal 1744

How might it be possible for the planned French invasion in 1744 during the War of the Austrian Succession to work, and what might the consequences of this be?
(James Stuart might be happy with this POD)
 
Why is everybody here so afraid to say Sealion? There, I said it, S-E-A-L-I-O-N. By God and all the Saints, the French aren't the Germans. For starters, the French back then actually had a navy. I think the French would have to neutralize their enemies on the Continent first before turning to face Britain. They could land, but their army might end up trapped there afterwards.
 
The French could probably land troops; IRL, the Spanish did in 1719, and only storms/luck stopped the French in 1744. Several Highland clans pulled out of the '45 because of no French troops, so, if a significant force had landed, esp with artillery, the Jacobites may well have had a larger, more dangerous army.
I do'nt think a Stuart Restoration is likely, but major butterflies on the Continent, maybe in the Americas?
 
Well there is a tradition of Frenchmen going across the channel to invade the English dating back to 1066. Just saying.
 
First, the French would need some naval victories to weaken the British navy and therefore to allow for resupply of the troops they land.

I'd say that the French would try to land in Ireland early on as well, which should provide them with additional troops.
 
Yes, Monty, the landing is easy, the resupply is a bitch - but essential if this is more than a flash in the pan.
 
Yes, Monty, the landing is easy, the resupply is a bitch - but essential if this is more than a flash in the pan.

Well at those times 80 % of the resupply was made "in-situ" if you know what I mean ...

But yes, some things like powder and the like would be a pain in the back to them ...
 
Well at those times 80 % of the resupply was made "in-situ" if you know what I mean ...

But yes, some things like powder and the like would be a pain in the back to them ...
For which side?

England had been conquered by the Dutch just 56 years previous. Did William of Orange run into difficulties of powder resupply?

And what about the Jacobites, 1745-1746?

How much would it take for the French plus Jacobites to cut off the powder supply of the Orangists? Once the British naval bases are taken from landside, the British fleet has nowhere to bring supplies from. Will they sail for Americas?
 
If by viking you mean Norman. Of course, warfare had changed quite a deal between 1066 and 1744, so tradition really doesn't matter here, I don't think.

A more recent example would be when the Dutch managed to invade and cause a change of government in England in I think the 1670s. That's relatively close chronologically, and really France can only hope to do that well. They are not ever going to be able to actually conquer Britain.
 
The Dutch invaded in 1688; there was very litttle fighting as so much of the English establishment was anti- James, and James VII and II lost his nerve/did'nt want to cause bloodshed - take your pick. This would be a little different.
Still, glad you called it an invasion, I remember having a discussion with someone who denied it was an invasion; according to him, the last successful invasion of England had been 1066. He got quite apoplectic when I mentioned Edward IV and that usurper, Henry VII - which was my intent, I will admit:D
 
The reasonably strong French fleet could have threatened English colonial interests from North America to the Indies to India, drawing off some of their strength, on land and sea.

And Norman in 1066 does mean French. Isn't that what the Normans spoke and weren't those the values they brought with them?

An old freind of mine from Guernsey always referred to the Queen as "The Queen, our Duke".
 
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