French conquest of Mexico

Do you think France could have taken over the Spanish Caribbean possessions and maybe Mexico in the first half of the 16th century, after privateer Jean Fleury arrived in France with Montezuma's treasure?
 
Do you think France could have taken over the Spanish Caribbean possessions and maybe Mexico in the first half of the 16th century, after privateer Jean Fleury arrived in France with Montezuma's treasure?

Against Charles V's unified Habsburg Imperial front, the closest thing you had to a united Europe since Charlamegne? I wouldn't hold my breath, given France already had to fight a bitter struggle to push off encirclement right at home.
 
Against Charles V's unified Habsburg Imperial front, the closest thing you had to a united Europe since Charlamegne? I wouldn't hold my breath, given France already had to fight a bitter struggle to push off encirclement right at home.
What if France attacked the Spanish possessions in the Americas in the Italian Wars of 1536 or 1542, when they went to war against Spain with the Ottomans as allies?
 
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What if France attacked the Spanish possessions in the Americas in the Italian Wars of 1536 or 1542, when they went to war against Spain with the Ottomans as allies?
The French have better chances of defeating Spain in Europe and forcing them to cede colonies at the negotiating table than they would crossing the Atlantic Ocean trying to seize the Spain's American possessions.
 
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The French have a better chances of defeating Spain in Europe and forcing them to cede colonies at the negotiating table than they would crossing the Atlantic Ocean trying to seize the Spain's American possessions.
Why do you think so? In 1545 France attempted to invade England with at least 30,000 men and 400 ships. What if they turned to the Americas instead?
 
Why do you think so? In 1545 France attempted to invade England with at least 30,000 men and 400 ships. What if they turned to the Americas instead?

Um... the Atlantic Ocean is not the Channel and such an expedition would flounder trying to cross such a distance and the logistics line would be sniped by he Spainards who at this point "rules the waves?"
 
Why do you think so? In 1545 France attempted to invade England with at least 30,000 men and 400 ships. What if they turned to the Americas instead?
Why would they? England is in Europe. Mexico is not. Spain is in Europe. Their colonies are not.

In purely technical terms is crossing the channel harder than the Atlantic? It is not. Crossing the Atlantic would be a massive waste of energy and logistics that would better be used on the European front. Why send an army across the ocean to unfamiliar terrain and be slaughtered by tropical diseases when you can send them to Italy or the Low Countries where Spain's troops are? As a analogy from those times would go, "you don't kill a Serpent by slicing its tail with a sword, you cut its Head off."

If France wants colonies. It should win them in Europe. How hard would it be to say "we have Barcelona, but we will return it if you give us Buenos Aires?" Not that difficult.
 
The French have a better chances of defeating Spain in Europe and forcing them to cede colonies at the negotiating table than they would crossing the Atlantic Ocean trying to seize the Spain's American possessions.
While the colonies were exclusively Spanish, France would need to defeat Charles V who also happened to be an emperor and had in his disposal greater and more modern military resources than a king of France (but not always enough money to pay these “resources” :))

At least in OTL France failed in its attempts to defeat Spain all the way to the early reign of Louis XIV.
 
Are you sure Spain dominated the sea in 1545?

It was one of the biggest boys on the ocean, yes. Portugal also wasen't a slouch, but this is before the Dutch are separate revolting and before the rise of the English so... yah. Definately more than pretty much anybody else, at least in the Atlantic
 
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