Deleted member 1487
Reading some of Fritz Fischer's thesis about the causes of WW1, he mentions a lot about trade and the barriers Germany faced prewar as one of the reasons they felt war would benefit them, as in victory they would have new markets or less tariffs. Instead after the war they faced higher ones.
What if though they did the one thing to lower tariffs on their industrial goods being sold in foreign countries by offering to lower agricultural tariffs in their own? The Junkers apparently had enough political power that they were able to keep tariffs high on imported food products to avoid competition and keep their estates viable. Let's say that Germany manages to get a redistricting clause in their constitution ever 10-20 years so that the shift to the cities of the population reduces the voting power of the rural areas and gives the political power to negotiate trade deals to more urban representatives.
To promote industry they then are able to negotiate deals to reduce industrial tariffs on German goods in return for reciprocal reduction of agricultural tariffs. Let's say that starts in 1904. If German industrial sales/employment was increased via these deals and agriculture reduced, breaking up the Junkers' estates in the process, would that be enough to potentially avert WW1?
What if though they did the one thing to lower tariffs on their industrial goods being sold in foreign countries by offering to lower agricultural tariffs in their own? The Junkers apparently had enough political power that they were able to keep tariffs high on imported food products to avoid competition and keep their estates viable. Let's say that Germany manages to get a redistricting clause in their constitution ever 10-20 years so that the shift to the cities of the population reduces the voting power of the rural areas and gives the political power to negotiate trade deals to more urban representatives.
To promote industry they then are able to negotiate deals to reduce industrial tariffs on German goods in return for reciprocal reduction of agricultural tariffs. Let's say that starts in 1904. If German industrial sales/employment was increased via these deals and agriculture reduced, breaking up the Junkers' estates in the process, would that be enough to potentially avert WW1?