With a POD starting from 1000 AD, have a monarch become King of France and Germany (either all/big chunks of former East Francia) simultaneously. Bonus if the personal union survived till at least the 20th century.
Would a French-HRE union count?
If that is the case, Francis I.
Oh, sorry. Forgot to include that it shouldn't be in the HRE in any way whatsoever.
Oh, sorry. Forgot to include that it shouldn't be in the HRE in any way whatsoever.
Indeed.So you want to destroy the political structure of the HRE and have a kingdom of Germany that is not part of the HRE ?
OTL, one could not become king of Germany without election in a framework which was the same as that of the HRE.