As in being obscenely wealthy via the New World? Capture Spanish treasure ships? Try to capture Mexico or Peru? I don't really know.
funnyhat said:Not that difficult, actually. Ferdinand and Isabella initially turned down Columbus's overtures and he was on his way to France when he got the news that they'd changed their mind and approved his plans. Just have them never change their mind, while France's Charles VIII agrees to support Columbus.
Perfectly possible.(Does this put Columbus ashore at Raleigh, NC?
Virginia Beach?
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So what other effects does it have? KO the HRE? Successfully invade Britain?Control most of North America?
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It does offer a better start than Quebec, I'd agree. IMO, tho, France was not terribly good at settler colonies (again, if OTL Quebec is any guide). This seems to lead to much the same outcome as OTL: Britain takes it over & expels the French.Elfwine said:That would be interesting. From our perspective, Virginia and the Carolinas are good land (or can be turned into such). But when you're looking for a route to the Indies, or short term gold to cover your ass, I'm not sure they're half as promising. Even if France later goes into settler colonies more than OTL, that's a disappointing start from the perspective of Columbus's backers.
It does offer a better start than Quebec, I'd agree. IMO, tho, France was not terribly good at settler colonies (again, if OTL Quebec is any guide). This seems to lead to much the same outcome as OTL: Britain takes it over & expels the French.
It does suggest no persistence of *Quebec, which is good for Canada's future.
I wonder, tho, if Columbus would simply sail south looking for islands, & find the Keys. Or Bermuda. Or the Bahamas. Or Puerto Rico...
Was there not a proposal to marry Mary of Burgundy to the Dauphin ? (I'm just going on memory here , but).
Possession of the Netherlands might make France more exploration aware.
Well a proposal at the end of a cannon but yes. If France can do what they did to Brittany in Burgundy (by that I mean overwhelm the country before the heiress can be officially married) then it could happen.
HOw do we get France in the position if Spain during the mid 16th century? No ASBs and please, plausibility people!!!
I consider that a rather substantial understatement.Elfwine said:it would be interesting.
I consider that a rather substantial understatement.![]()
As said in the thread I linked to, this seems to mean France will have an enormous amount of money to spend, which has equally large impact on her ability to fight wars. Does it encourage her to be more aggressive, & end up as bankrupt as OTL, perhaps earlier? Or does it just tip the balance in crucial wars?
Elfwine said:It's a good question. OTL most of Habsburg Spain's royal revenue came from the taxes on Castilean peasants and merchants (4 to 1), not the New World
Indeed.Elfwine said:Given France's OTL early modern troubles, I think this might end worse in the long run - France failing to develop internally would be very costly, and an aggressive France fueled by New World gold and silver would be able to fight until it dropped dead the same way OTL Spain kinda did.
i thought that with currents and whatnot it was likely columbus would still land in the carribean? I may be wrong but I've definitely heard that before.There (Columbus sailing south) we get into details I'm not sure what to answer - but it would be interesting.
That's counting the regular treasure ships?
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Indeed.
It seems inevitable to me this France is going to kick over the Holy Roman Empire in pretty short order. It also seems likely there's going to be major conflict with Spain--& serious, ongoing conflict with Britain.More equal conflict, too, given a rich France could actually have a navy able to match Britain's.
(And
). That, alone, has all manner of butterflies.
I find myself thinking of a France controlling a very substantial overseas empire: much of the Caribbean, part/all India, part/all of *IndoChina (& *DEI?), perhaps the southeast part of the *U.S. I'm seeing this lasting from Columbus until, IDK, mid-1700s, when you get an *American Revolution (or one in metro France, either way) when the house of cards crashes.Metro France OTL ends up split between Germany, Spain, & Italy. The OTL SE U.S. traded to Britain (or maybe Spain, to pay bills & avoid a crash at home a few years longer?). The Caribbean possessions (Bermuda, Puerto Rico, Jamaica, Cuba at least) to the Dutch, after losing the Revolution?
This could put Boers in Haiti. Or Florida.
Does this also mean the Brit America amounts to "SuperCanada", & earlier?(Does it rebel, too? Or just quietly sneak off & smoke a couple of joints & make out with Mexico?
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Dicovering america first does not mind being able to create a huge colonial empire.
I find myself thinking of a France controlling a very substantial overseas empire: much of the Caribbean, part/all India, part/all of *IndoChina (& *DEI?), perhaps the southeast part of the *U.S. I'm seeing this lasting from Columbus until, IDK, mid-1700s, when you get an *American Revolution (or one in metro France, either way) when the house of cards crashes.Metro France OTL ends up split between Germany, Spain, & Italy. The OTL SE U.S. traded to Britain (or maybe Spain, to pay bills & avoid a crash at home a few years longer?). The Caribbean possessions (Bermuda, Puerto Rico, Jamaica, Cuba at least) to the Dutch, after losing the Revolution? This could put Boers in Haiti. Or Florida.
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