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As you might know (or probably not), I am sort of planning to create a timeline in which the French ally with the Dutch and the combination of both would create a naval counterbalance to the English. Basicly, England won't rule the waves, but has to share it with the Dutch and the French. This means England (or Britain) is going to lose some colonies to France and the Netherlands. Personaly I was thinking of giving France Southern India, while England focuses on the Bengal area.

I do not know a lot about the colonisation of India. When I was checking google looking for some information and inspiration about it, I found out that England manage to colonise northern India relatively early on. It looks like they used the Ganges river from the Bengal area to colonise a large part of Northern India. Would this be possible for them to do if France controls southern India, or more correctly England does not control Southern India, while France at least tries to increase its influence in that area (I think it will take a while before France controls all of it, or have puppet rulers in place)? Mind you, I do consider it possible for France and England to actualy decide on spheres of influence on India. Basicly divide it.
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