British Argentina and the abolition of slavery in Brazil
If a British Argentina existed, would William Dougal Christie (being the British consul in Brazil) still have exerted pressure on the Brazilians in the late 1850s or early 1860s, at which point they would refuse to yield and they would ultimately cut off diplomatic relations with Great Britain for two years? If not, would that have been a function of how British consuls in non-British countries next to major British colonies have acted (e.g. Brazil or Chile next to British Argentina) vs. how British consuls in non-British countries not near major British colonies have acted (e.g. OTL Argentina, Uruguay, Brazil, or Chile)? What I'm asking here, essentially, is whether Christie would have had to consult the governor of the biggest of the British Argentine colonies rather than wing it on his own.
If Christie is going to have to consult one or more of the colonial governors within British Argentina, what effect would that have on the process of ultimately abolishing Brazilian slavery? I think that slavery would be abolished there in due course anyway, because the country was modernizing at any rate in the latter half of the 1800s, and abolitionism was becoming increasingly active. I was thinking that in this case, slavery would be abolished in Brazil a couple of years before it was done OTL in 1888.
I'm sure that the Aberdeen Act of 1845 would still have been passed - right? I think that the British would use increasing pressure in the ensuing years - a few years earlier than OTL due to no conflict with Rosas in Argentina - to root out the Brazilian external slave trade, so that Brazil bans it in 1848 rather than 1850 like OTL. Is that fair to say?