Ferdinand I gets the netherlands, not Phillip of Spain. Plausible?

Charles V decides that it is better for the HRE to have the Burgundian heritage... or probably his spanish advisors impose their views.
 
Simple, is this plausible and how could it happen?
As Condo suggested, he might decide it'd be best for the German Branch of the family to reign a territory that is inhabited by Germanic peoples.
The problem comes with the fact that Ferdinand was also very Catholic and anti-Reform, much like Philip II, and the Calvinist Dutch would probably still rebel and try to separate, leading to the long war and bloodshed that occurred OTL. Just with slightly different belligerents.

Unless, of course, Emperor Maximilian II and his ideas of a "neither Catholic nor Protestant, but Christian" policy for his country's religion continued after his untimely death, with his sons Rudolph and Matthew.
 

Susano

Banned
The problem is that the establishment of the German branch was more an accident brn out of neccesity, not a plan. Also, Charles V. put REALLY great emphasis of his descant from House Burgdundy, so hell probably want to keep Burgundy in HIS line. Besides, the entire question of the "Spanische Sukzesion" (Charles V trying to Philip as next HR Emperor and failing) was bad enough, I dont think Charles would just so gift Ferdinand!
 

mobius

Banned
I once read somewhere that Ferdinand of Aragon wanted to divide is grandsons inheritance, Charles getting the Burgundian and the Austrian possessions and Ferdinand would get the Castille and Aragon possessions,

This plan is a more plausible oportunity to have the Netherlands and Austria under the same Habsburg branch because Charles would never give up the Netherlands
 
I once read somewhere that Ferdinand of Aragon wanted to divide is grandsons inheritance, Charles getting the Burgundian and the Austrian possessions and Ferdinand would get the Castille and Aragon possessions,

This plan is a more plausible oportunity to have the Netherlands and Austria under the same Habsburg branch because Charles would never give up the Netherlands

That would be much better...

As I'm sure Susano would agree... :p;)
 
Wel Ferdinand was raised in his grandfather Ferdinand's noble court in Spain, as opposed to Charles who was born in Ghent. I always thought it made more sense for Ferdinand to get Spain and Philip to get Austria, Burgundy, and the HRE.
 

Susano

Banned
Wel Ferdinand was raised in his grandfather Ferdinand's noble court in Spain, as opposed to Charles who was born in Ghent. I always thought it made more sense for Ferdinand to get Spain and Philip to get Austria, Burgundy, and the HRE.

Then you dont get the attitude of the time. Charles was the senior son, hence he gets the senior inheritance - or as originally planned, all of it, anyways.
 

mobius

Banned
Charles was the senior son, hence he gets the senior inheritance - or as originally planned, all of it, anyways.

But the senior inheritance, at least in 1517, was the Austria-Burgundy branch, it was the paternal line of the family, it included the Imperial title, and the Netherlands one of the richest the countries in Europe.

Castile-Aragon was certainly one of the great powers of the time but only became significantly more important than the rest of Charles inheritance when the south american gold started to arrive in large quantities after the spanish conquest of Mexico in 1519.
 

Susano

Banned
But the senior inheritance, at least in 1517, was the Austria-Burgundy branch, it was the paternal line of the family, it included the Imperial title, and the Netherlands one of the richest the countries in Europe.
Seeing that the HR Emperor title was not hereditary it did not come automatically with those territories. De facto it did, yes, but Charles himself tried (and failed when Ferdinand became his sucessor as Emperor) to unite the titles of Spanish King and HR Emperor.

Sure, Austria and Burgundy were the corelands, but Spain were the more profitable and powerful lands, even before colonsiation of the Americas.
 
Sure, Austria and Burgundy were the corelands, but Spain were the more profitable and powerful lands, even before colonsiation of the Americas.
No, Burgundy(the Burgundian Netherlands) was the wealthiest country in Europe prior to the beginning of the flow of American Gold and Silver into the Spanish Coffers.
 
I think this (the latter idea, not the one in the title) requires Charles not becoming "fascinated" with Spain as much as IOTL (he chose it as retirement, after all) and as a consequence he would have educated his son in the Netherlands instead of Castile.
 
I think this (the latter idea, not the one in the title) requires Charles not becoming "fascinated" with Spain as much as IOTL (he chose it as retirement, after all) and as a consequence he would have educated his son in the Netherlands instead of Castile.

It would be intriguing if Spain so much as had a bit of the industriousness of the Dutch. Don't just flood Europe with bullion, but further develop the trade side of things. I'm willing to bet they lost a lot of coin to the Dutch and the English in this regard, trading without the dues they would normally have paid for at Cadiz (?).
 
That reminds me of this:

http://www.uni-mannheim.de/mateo/camenaref/cmh/cmh305.html

The Cambridge Modern History said:
But, when in 1547 Charles consented to a marriage between his elder daughter, Maria, and her cousin Maximilian-it was actually celebrated in the following year-the hoped-for dowry of Milan or (what would have suited him better still) the Low Countries, was withheld.

Not what was asked for, but close enough. Maximilian was Ferdinand's son and heir.
 
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