Fake Vichy?

Sketching a timeline, an idea presented itself of the French staging a sort of fake surrender, leaving a figurehead government in metropolitan France that would surrender to Germany, while a "rebel" government stablished itself on Algiers and kept fighting on. I don't think that it's very plausible (in fact in story it's supposed to be one of those last ditch schemes of Churchill to keep France in the war, like the Franco-British Union), but I want to hear your opinions about this.
 
What is to keep Germans from figuring the scheme out and occupying Metropolitan France, as they did as soon as Allies occupied NA? Especially as I do not think French could possibly have managed to keep it a secret.
 
During the war, some people were thinking that Pétain was not rally a collaborationist, but just faking it and was in fact part of the Resistance somehow, and even that in fact he and de Gaulle wete BFF. Didn't last long.
 
Before when I knew little about history I thought this is what actually happened.

Not sure how it could happen, but if it does it probably gets referred to retrospectively as something cool like the 'Honorable Deceit'.
 
What is to keep Germans from figuring the scheme out and occupying Metropolitan France, as they did as soon as Allies occupied NA? Especially as I do not think French could possibly have managed to keep it a secret.

As I said it's not very plausible, that's why I magined it a Churchillian brainstorm. I think that it could be a ploy to give time for evacuate enough material to Northern Africa to keep fighting. So if it's kept a secret for enough time, maybe it could work... with a lot of luck.

During the war, some people were thinking that Pétain was not rally a collaborationist, but just faking it and was in fact part of the Resistance somehow, and even that in fact he and de Gaulle wete BFF. Didn't last long.

Well, I had a french book written in the 60s that tried to whitewash Vichy actions, so elements of that legend persisted in France for a long time.

Surrender? Technically France did not surrender but signed an armistice.

BAd election of words.

Before when I knew little about history I thought this is what actually happened.

Not sure how it could happen, but if it does it probably gets referred to retrospectively as something cool like the 'Honorable Deceit'.

Probably.
 
OTL, Reynaud tried to get Weygand to surrender the army in France while his government left for North Africe, Weygand refused (not wanting the army to be blamed for a sell out). I think thats kind of what the TL wanted. So you could have Weygand agree to this and go from there.

However, the leverage the French have after late June 40 is their navy and colonies. If these are with the Allies the Germans have no reason to not occupy the entire country and to pursue whatever occupation policies they wish free of any mitigating factors.

Plus the Germans are then free to offer Italy, Spain or Muslim independence movements these territories as negotating points with them as they need.

OTL Vichy lessened the impact of occupation on France (as compared to Poland lets say) but didn't hurt them in the final peace. Having both Free French and Vichy gave the French the option to go with whomever was winning, and allowed each to gain negotiating points with their masters. Very clever those French.
 
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