Well, that's unlikely for a number of reasons. Spain took what it did because it arrived first and conquered those portions of the Americas which were the most populous, so far as first explorations could tell, and those which were of most economic use to it. England is geographically inclined to arrive on the scene later than any Iberian power, and so would not have first dibs as Spain did.
But if that's the case, then England's colonies will very likely not follow the same boundaries as the Spanish ones we know from OTL, so it's hard to line up OTL's Latin American nations and what they "would have been" if the English got there first.