English Enclaves in France

Susano

Banned
The special case here is not the Habsburg Emprie - as said, Brandenburg-Prussia was much the same, and any German and Italian principality, really. And Spain, too. The special case is indeed the British Isles. Because of the traditionally strong role of parliament there, the differencation between personal and real union made sense there, and of course it makes sense in modern times, too - but not in continental Europe of the Middle Ages and Early Modern Age.

The point is indeed that most monarchs would have a leading title. Ah, okay, Habsburg IS special in this case, but - well, Brandenburg, as said. The elading tiotle here was that of the Prince-Elector of Brandenburg. Behidn that title, every other was secondary, and that is why Cleves was Brandenburgish - because "Count of Cleves" was just a secondary title.

Same for King of England and whatever titles the King would assemble in France...
 
I guess you can blame the socialist in me. The English never ruled lands in France, A Englishman did. :p

Strictly speaking, an Englishman didn't rule lands in France...

They were ruled by a Frenchman, who also happened to be the king of England... :D

But that's Plantagenets (and Normans) for you...

The only time England has ever controlled a part of what is now France was after the Hundred Years War ended, and that was just the Pale of Calais... ;)
 
I think there is one difference between the Prussian/Austrian situation and the English situation. All the territories of Prussia had the same overlord the HR Emperor (at least in theory) while of the French areas of England the overlordwas the ruler of France, while the overlord of the areas in Britain was the king of England. Maybe a solution would be a different 100-year war, where the British do better than OTL, but still don't manage to become king of France. In the end the British fiefs of France, like Normandy, are transferred from the kingdom of France to the kingdom of England. I am not sure how likely that is.
 
Strictly speaking, an Englishman didn't rule lands in France...

They were ruled by a Frenchman, who also happened to be the king of England... :D

But that's Plantagenets (and Normans) for you...

The only time England has ever controlled a part of what is now France was after the Hundred Years War ended, and that was just the Pale of Calais... ;)

Nah, I can't remember who it was who was the first 'English' king but they became English after one or two hundred years.
Even before that if they weren't speaking English as their first language they were still born over here mostly.
 
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