Effects of no Peninsular War on Latin American Wars for Independence?

Depends, if there's no Peninsular War what are Spain's relations with France and Great Britain? If they're still firmly in the French camp then the British will be supporting the rebels both indirectly, by sinking or capturing every Spanish ship they can find so no supplies or reinforcements coming from Spain, or directly with materiel and financial aid. Hell, they tried to invade Argentina in our timeline anyway only giving up when things went against them and Spain coming over to their side of the war. With Britain and Spain still at odds I'd see them losing Latin America to the revolutionaries even sooner.
 
In Spanish America the revolts stemmed from the fall of royal authority. Once the king had been imprisoned, the colonial governments wouldn't Bonaparte's brother.

So presumably the revolts wouldn't occur as they did in OTL. Another catalyst would need to arise.
 
Two other scenarios, one more related to this one than the other.
1: No Peninsular War. Instead an enlightened Spanish king declares all Christians legally equal. Instant criollo rebellion? And what happens afterward?
2: The Latin American colonies still revolt, and because of the OTL Peninsular War. However, the King of Spain, in desperation in the late 1810s, decides to declare all Christians equal and try and get the support of non-criollos against the revolutionaries.
 
I thought it had been bubbling for a while but the arrest was what finally topped it off? Either way, with the British interdicting all the Spanish ships they can find the colonies are still going to be cut off from Spain for the most part except for neutral shipping.
 
Two other scenarios, one more related to this one than the other.
1: No Peninsular War. Instead an enlightened Spanish king declares all Christians legally equal. Instant criollo rebellion? And what happens afterward?
2: The Latin American colonies still revolt, and because of the OTL Peninsular War. However, the King of Spain, in desperation in the late 1810s, decides to declare all Christians equal and try and get the support of non-criollos against the revolutionaries.
Wouldn't making all christian equal meet the criollos demands? That means they would essentially be able to gain power in the colonies like they wanted, and while it also means indigenous and mestizos also get the privileges. That is only in law not in practice very likely something like this would result in most criollos - loyal to the king of Spain - remain loyal, hoping they could in practice gain power without letting the indigenous and mestizo population gain their equality de facto.
 
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