Didn't the Marathas keep Mughals as puppets in OTL ?
Because they themselves had little legitimacy amongst Rajputs or really any north indians- there was no way they could form a de jure relationship where the emperor was subordinated to the Marathas- at most itd be a Shogun Emperor style situation.
So the existential threat of the Mughal Empire will have to dealt with, or at least brought to such a state that it can no longer destroy the Marathas on a whim.
While a succession struggle is most likely to result in a united empire after a few years, it's possible given that Aurangzeb wanted to partition it anyway following his death that one of his sons could form a splinter state in either Bengal or Punjab while leaving the majority of the empire united, in a Humayun, Mirza Kamran repeat. Perhaps this as well as a stronger safavids drawing Mughal attention northwards would mean they're fine leaving the Deccan to its own developments.
The Panchayat system existed in India from ancient times, so if the marathas adopt it, they would gain legitimacy in the eyes of their rural subjects
Every time I see the phrase existed in India from ancient times, I become suspicious. It stinks of orientalism, and all those ideas about the eternal and unchanging nature of Indian society, which needs to be saved from its stagnation by Western thought. Id question the relevance of a Panchayati system to the early modern context. Nandini Chatterjee recently did an excellent study on how legal disputes actually worked in practice in a part of the mughal empire very close to the Adil Shahis and which would later be taken by the Marathas. Strikingly it bears little resemblance to either Islamic jurisprudence or Sanskrit jurisprudence, and was more or less based on resolving conflict by the mediation of scribes with access to local legal records (which were obviously local men) any mutually recognised religious authority, a local zamindar or local representatives of the central government. Thus conflict is minimised when the representatives of the central government (maratha nobility) are also the local zamindars (they have local power bases). In my mind, the best way for a stable Maratha state to exist is to keep the Mughals entangled in the north and restrict the Marathas to the Adil Shahi domains, which was anyway an Islamic Maratha state in the same way that the Mughals were Islamic Rajputs.
Sikhs would have revolted any way and his massive milllion man strong moving capital in Deccan to hunt Marathas would be really hurtful for the economy like OTL, all it would take is his death in battle or assassination to trigger a succession dispute in Delhi and inevitable revolt from Sikhs
That's a very deterministic way of looking at things- hell had Bahadur Shah been a stronger ruler he himself could have reconciliated the Sikhs and incorporated them into his government. The Sikh community and the Mughal government were in no way on a collision course as evidenced by centuries of cooperation.
Maratha wanted to conquer Delhi after the conquest Deccan,
No they didn't, Delhi was seen as firmly firmly far out of Maratha reach until the 1740s and not even a desirable goal until then because the Maratha ideology was based on Maharashtra dharma, Marathi independence and power to a state centred in Maharashtra which had been born through centuries of dialogue concerning Deccanis versus Westerners at the Adil Shahi and Bahmani courts as well as the rhetoric generated by the pressure of the Mughal government southwards. It was only really extreme weakness of the later Mughals that drew opportunistic Maratha leaders to try their luck in the north, there was never an ideological goal of taking Delhi to drive out the Mughals and replace them.
Marathas would patronise local tradition, languages
We can see that that categorically did not happen otl. The Mughals were fine with local tradition because to them there was no ideological basis in any type of Hinduism and trying to convert people en masse to Islam was never realistic. The Marathas on the other hand were extremely driven to uproot local traditions in order to impose their own Brahmin centric interpretation of Hinduism and in the process policed the livelihood and destroyed local traditions of brahmins. Further, the only local language they patronised in the upper administration was Marathi itself- decidedly not local to Gujarat or Bihar. Sure they might have patronised local languages in literature, but thats no different from earlier rulers. The Thanjavur Marathas do seem to be unique in that they developed traditions of yakshagana that used vernacular languages from regions across India which is fascinating and incredibly deserving of future scholarly attention.
If you really want Chhatrapati Shivaji's ideals to be maintained in governance, until the late 18th century, everything south of the Narmada and probably Southern Gujarat and Malwa; with parts of the extreme South being somewhat autonomous.
This seems like a reasonable estimate- i would imagine the Thanjavur Nayak state remains independent even if allied to the main Maratha government and wouldn't brook interference in its sphere of influence if it could help it, and a well governed state on Shivajis model could possibly invade and hold most of the western regions of the Golconda sultanate.
I tried to write a Maratha wank story with a SI but I've had trouble actually putting down words to the page cus of the quarantine and all the terrible shit that's been going on. Hopefully once things settle down for me I'll be able to write again. The end goal for that story was to write a technologically and culturally advanced, proto-socialist federation of nations which consisted of parts of OTL Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, India, Bangaldesh, Bhutan and Sri Lanka.
I'll echo others and say that I'm really interested in seeing a finished version of this- I'd love to see your take on this period as it's so rich with possibility and potential.
Most academics take the side of Chitnis since we have muslim sources that agree with Sambhaji being addicted to drugs
Drug addiction was a very common problem amongst persianate high society of the time so I really wouldn't be surprised. However I'd question these Muslim sources as well- they could either be trying to portray him as a sophisticated man of culture or as a drugged wastrel depending on their philosophical leanings. If I've learned one thing about Indo Islamic primary sources it's that they always have a hidden message.
Till the latter part of Aurangzeb’s rule, more than seventy per cent of Mughal nobility was Muslim and of these, two-thirds were of foreign origin(North India)!
Attesting to the cosmopolitan and open atmosphere where merit was more important than being local- nevertheless even your numbers give that the majority of Mughal nobles was in fact Native Indian and of those it was a pretty even split between Hindus and Muslims. 2/3 of 70 percent is 46 percent, meaning 54 percent indians, and of those 24 percent Muslims and the rest Hindus. Not to mention the extensive economy of rich and powerful bankers, scribes, and officials which were almost all Hindus.
this foreign nature of Nobility in Delhi made the always threaten the western border of India, they can ask from Afghan or Persian power to come and help the Mughal emperor.
And the Durranis and Afsharids proved so helpful for the Mughals- no, the dynasty saw itself and it's servants as Indian and saw Afghans and persians more as rivals than as fellow westerners. This discourse was well established in the south and spread into Mughal realms as well- it's the old Deccanis Afaqis split.
it's not about the legitimacy of Mughal rule, it was danger of army from Western border stop Maratha to depose emperor.
Notwithstanding that an army from the western border would be even more likely than the Marathas to depose the emperor and that Rajput legitimacy had by this point become firmly based in rituals centred around service to and recognition by the Mughals who were seen as the ultimate rightful overlords of north India?