Nowhere. Gothic and Vandalic kingdoms in western Romania were far too romanized institutionally and culturally to really hope see Eastern Germanic survives as anything more than symbolical use. IOTL, they weren't used commonly since the VIth century onward.
Do you think it is impossible or just unlikely? Your post below seem to indicate the latter.
Why could not Crimean Gothic survive into the 21st century assuming similar to OTL political history?
Impossible if the political history unfolds as IOTL. Crimean Gothic was in a really, really peripheral area. Spain, Gaul, Italy and Africa definitely weren't.
Because we're talking of an isolate, neighbored and dominated by several other languages which were supported either trough chefely dominance at best, outright administration at worst. Even Cornish had a better chance.
Eastern Germanic speeches weren't really distinguished : we're using Gothic and Vandalic out of convenience there, as they might have been based on their own proper dialectal differenciation. Truth is, differenciated Eastern Germanic languages would appear along political-cultural lines, rather than the contrary.
At worst, along Aromanian equivalent ITTL. At the very best, pre-XIIth Albanian.
Why is political history so important?
Crimea was hub of many different migrations. The peninsula also changed hands multiple times. Was it really that peripheral?
What about Romania, Bulgaria, Turkey?
Why cannot Eastern Germanic be as succesfull as Roma?
Do we really have enough data to be certain of much related to Eastern Germanic languages? Or can be only make educated guesses?
How would a Aromanian scenario plat out? What about a Albanian scenario?
Because it sets where things are happening, and in which institutional frames, especially giving Barbarian identity was importantly set on political frameworks until the late Vth.
Peripheral to Romania, which is really important in the degree of linguistical and cultural romanisation of populations there.
About Danubian regions.
Fewer numbers which were importantly made by provincial natives, heavy cultural and institutional romanisation right as Barbarians peoples formed along the limes which only increased as they entered Romania.
As for Gothic, we do have the Bible of Wulfila which is a really important source on documenting the sate of Late Antiquity Gothic language along the Commentaries on St John and some isolated sentences, names and words after the Vth century.
Isolated villages and communities still practicing some god-forgotten speech until a polity strong enough to project itself arrives and trough sheer cultural gravity swallow them up more or less importantly.
There would be the possibility of a more unified survival, if on an isolated ground, on mountains and piedmonts, until the occasion for political autonomy and/or coastal and/or outer migrations kicks in.
What about the Crimean Goths of the medieval period? How were their identity compared to migration era Eastern Germanic hordes, hosts, tribes, states.
What would need to happen for a Albanian style East Germanic group?
There's no real trace Gothic survived in Crimea past the Xth. Most of the arguments in this sense are extremely debatable.
It's hard to say giving their relative isolation : we do know that a Gothic identity remained in southern Crimea long enough to a part of it being named Gothia, but it was as well described as one within a mosaic of other local identities.
A foedus settled in Illyricum, stuck between a strong Italy and Byzantium (maybe an Italy that is part of Byzantium since the Vth century, and in drastic need of someone settling in the middle of Illyricum), which is not swallowed up by Romania in the VIth, is able to withdraw into Dinaric mountains (probably in order to secure coastal area) until it eventually re-emerges out of chiefdoms surrounded by Slavs in the medieval area as an autonomous polity and as a manpower poll to coastal and neighbouring regions that are relatively peripheral to the realm(s) cores.
And while really interesting, a Gothic identity (one among many in the era, in modern Languedoc or Sweden) doesn't imply survival of Gothic language past the cave writings (which are from the Xth).
I could see it as a continuation from a Vandalic settlement in IOTL Late Ancient Alemania, so with a IIIrd or IVth century PoD, it would be fine enough.
A Eastern Germanic language that is close to Western Germanic languages might be greatly impacted or even assimilated by Western Germanic languages.
Why do you use the term "Romania" to describe the Roman Empire/Roman World/Roman Sphere? Romania is most commonly used to describe Romania a nation-state in Europe. Romania usually refer to the Eastern Romance nation state of Romania and Eastern Romance languages.
Because the latter is only a 20thC term at the insistence of said country. Before then Romania (and Rhomania) were perfectly acceptable and indeed apt descriptions for the Roman states/polities.
LSC is Francophone, where “Romania” refers to Roman civilization and not the Balkan country (which is “Roumanie” in French).
