Early WW1 British Naval victory. What does the Royal Navy do now.

The close blockade with amphibious landings remained the Royal Navy war plans until right up into the war. It just happens that IOTL, the plans were not executed.
I'm sure that there was a war plan for a close blockade in the event that the German Navy failed to lay down minefield however were laid down sufficiently early that it was not implemented. It was kind of a if the enemy is stupid how do we take advantage not a serious plan.
 
Working on the basis Jellicoe and Beatty sink the entire Battlecruiser squadron, and half the Battleships, while a Battlecruiser or two, and one or two Battleships get sunk, then the fact that ships were lost would quickly be irrelevant to the public, who would turn Jellicoe into the next Nelson. The Grand Fleet would see few changes for a couple of months, given the number of ships needing repair, so everything servicable would be at Scapa Flow. Once some of the better dreadnoughts are repaired, then the British would reinforce the Med, but the Battlecruisers and the more modern Battleships would remain at Scapa flow. The oldest ships I could see getting sent into the Med are the Orion class, on the grounds they outclass everything else by a mile, indeed the Royal Navy might keep HMS Agincourt, and some of the 12 inch dreadnoughts in the Grand Fleet to free them up for the Med.

Anyway, the Germans would likely either
- Supend most capital ship production
- Start building capital ships as fast as possible, in the hope that they might be able to trick the British.

The former is more likely, so a few Dreadnoughts get completed, while the Germans focus on Submarines and commerce raiders.
 

BlondieBC

Banned
I'm sure that there was a war plan for a close blockade in the event that the German Navy failed to lay down minefield however were laid down sufficiently early that it was not implemented. It was kind of a if the enemy is stupid how do we take advantage not a serious plan.

No, these were serious plans. Not only did they have written orders, generally speaking, each of these plans were the main subject of a fleet exercise.
 

BooNZ

Banned

Interesting link, although technically the British did not declare a Blockade in WW1 - instead they were purportedly exercising their rights under a pre-existing retaliation doctrine. The reason being the OTL distant blockade was in no way consistent with the agreed (but not ratified) provisions of the Treaty of London 1909. The Treaty of London was strongly supported by Britain including Grey, who described it as the best representation of contemporary practice of maritime law - or words to that effect.

Areas of inconsistency include treating except goods (including food) as contraband, interrupting shipping destined to neutral ports and the whole concept of a distant blockade. Without ratification the British were not bound by the Treaty of London, but as key proponents of the Treaty, a formal declaration of a blockade would have probably invited adverse scrutiny/commentary by neutral parties.
 
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