OTL the Soviet mobilization was covert and partial because Stalin specifically did not want to risk war as a result of wartime mobilization. Assuming if the USSR had simply begun full out mobilization and all that would entail with the outbreak of war in Poland (the only PoD here), how does this change things? OTL the political wisdom in Moscow was that there would be a leisurely war on the border with Germany, there would be time to mobilize and for deployments. As a side note, FDR considered doing this even before the invasion of Poland (mobilizing the American industry) but failed to get it to happen
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