Earliest point for Non-Monarchical Governments to become the Norm

Exactly as it says on the tin, what is the earliest possible point that a form of government, any form of government that cannot reasonably be described as monarchist in nature could become the normal(or at least most common) form of government. Now obviously monarchies can still exist, they just can't be as common.
 
Exactly as it says on the tin, what is the earliest possible point that a form of government, any form of government that cannot reasonably be described as monarchist in nature could become the normal(or at least most common) form of government. Now obviously monarchies can still exist, they just can't be as common.
So City States as Republican polities ruled by counsels are always possible as far back as the earliest settlements.
 
I have a vague idea for a timeline that sees Nappy perish before becoming emperor, and this in turn keeps France a republic, and results in republics being the norm outside of colonies and island nations by about 1900.
 

Thomas1195

Banned
I have a vague idea for a timeline that sees Nappy perish before becoming emperor, and this in turn keeps France a republic, and results in republics being the norm outside of colonies and island nations by about 1900.
Levellers win the Putney Debates or somehow gain control over the NMA. Britain becomes a true democratic republic (enfranchising 20% off the adult male population was very radical back then) and never looks back.

Alternatively, Pym and Hampden lives on, thus Charles is executed without Pride's Purge (Pym and Hampden were very different from the majority of the Parliament in their foresight and unlie Cromwell, they had greater political influence abd could sway the Parliament to their side). A republic is also formed because they fear Charles II or his brothers would try to avenge his father.

If Britain stayed a republic, the concept of constitutional monarchy could have been killed off.
 
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