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After doing a little research on Charles II of Spain and the Spanish Hapsburgs in general I came across what I thought was an interesting POD. Namely this...

WI Charles II dies in infancy? Say before 1661 is finished? Philip IV is set to kick the bucket around 1665. How would the Spanish Succession play out 35 years earlier?

Now the way I see it you have 2 main contenders for the Spanish Throne
-Louis Le Grand Dauphin son of French King Louis XIV and Philip IV's daughter by far the closest candidate I believe...

-Leopold I of Austria, a fellow Hapsburg who in OTL was the one Philip IV's will gave the crown of Spain to.

Now in OTL there was the Bavarian prince, a Wittelsbach who died in 1699 precipitating OTL's war of Spanish Succession but he wasn't born until 1693 (I think).

Now the question is who becomes King of Spain? Is there a war of Spanish Succession? If so what does it look like? Who lines up against who? The key to this question really is France. By 1665 none of the economic reforms had kicked in, those reforms I believe had a big impact on France's ability to wage war during the latter part of the 17th century. Could they be implemented in wartime?

In OTL the pro-French faction was large enough by 1700 to nominate the French candidate for the Spanish Throne. Would it be the same if the event were say 35 years earlier? Or would the pro-Austrian faction emerge victorious and Leopold ends up being crowned King of Spain renewing the Hapsburg alliance?

The final angle I wish to present on this whole subject is that of John of Austria. In OTL he was extremely popular until his falling out with Maria-Therese, Charles II's mom and regent dieing in 1678 I believe. WI, unable to produce a legitimate heir, Philip IV, in desperation legitimizes his relationship with John's mom (an actress) thereby making John of Austria a legitimate child and therefore the heir to the throne?

Possible?

I'd really like to hear the thoughts of others on this matter since this area of History isn't my Forte.
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