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On the path to 'proper' industrialization, as exemplified by the increased mechanization from water and then steam power, there were many improvements in the concept of the division of labor. Take Adam Smith's classic example of the pin workshop, where 10 workers could produce 48,000 pins daily by dividing the steps of production, whereas 10 independent workers could only produce 100-200 pins daily. There is also the prominence of the putting out system, or cottage industry, which came into its own in the 17th/18th centuries.

What both of these systems have in common is that neither really involves a technological change over previous forms of manufacturing, just an organizational change. So, the question becomes 'how early could these forms of production come into their own?' It would seem that the main factors in enabling their existence would be political stability and population. With that in mind, could the high middle ages have seen such production?
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