What point of time between 1700 and 1900 would be the most likely for a partitioning of the Ottoman Empire? And how could it have been done?
I wonder, during the French Revolutionary or Napoleonic wars, when everyone was busy fighting France, could Russia had used the opportunity to attack the Ottomans?
Maybe the French Revolutionary armies push on after Camp Formio, capture Istanbul, create a Republic of Turkey?
Maybe a more successful Egyptian campaign leads to a Republic of the Levant, too.
I wonder, during the French Revolutionary or Napoleonic wars, when everyone was busy fighting France, could Russia had used the opportunity to attack the Ottomans?
They did.
(filler)
Seems like I am not to well-read on the subject, When was that and what was the result?
Without any Republic traditions there hard to imagine...
I doesn't seem very out of character for Napoleon to do it. For whatever reason, he decides (prior to attacking Spain and Russia but after defeating Austria and Prussia) that the Ottomans have got to go. It wouldn't be inconceivable for him to then assemble a coalition with Austria, Russia, and revolting Greeks to destroy the Ottoman Empire. Like with the Poles, a new Rhomanion emerges that holds much of the Ottoman Balkans and Western Asia Minor, a mostly Greek entity which is very loyal to Napoleon. Russia and Spain grab bits in North Africa and Northern Anatolia respectively.
All you need to do is find the right reason for Napoleon to decide to do it, and he'll get it done.
Of course the Russians and Austrians would have problems to decide how to divide the spoils. Any suggestions?
Of course the Russians and Austrians would have problems to decide how to divide the spoils. Any suggestions?
Austria gets influence over the west (Serbia, Montenegro, Bosnia, Greece, Albania) and Russia gets influence over the east (Romania, Bulgaria, Thrace, straits)
That´s a lot to Austria.
Sorry to rain on this parade, but in actual history, the Ottoman Empire and Napoleonic France were consistently allies. This changed somewhat after Tilsit, as the Porte was understandably irritated at what they perceived as the French throwing them under the bus to make peace with Russia, even there, Napoleon actually attempted to extract some concessions for the Ottomans at Tilsit.
On the other hand, Napoleon being Napoleon, him deciding to attack the Ottoman Empire, perhaps as a way to tie both Austria and Russia to him more closely, is not impossible. But I don't know that it was ever considered. After all, it would benefit Austria and Russia a lot more than France. And France had some serious political and commercial interests in the Near East that the Porte consistently guaranteed.
What point of time between 1700 and 1900 would be the most likely for a partitioning of the Ottoman Empire? And how could it have been done?
Spain and France were consistently allies. Russia and France were consistently allies. It's not very hard to imagine a situation where Napoleon would turn on France and draw in Austria, Russia, and Spain for a mass partition. Just because it was never considered IOTL doesn't mean circumstances couldn't change.
You meant the Ottomans, right?![]()