Earlier Independence for the Spanish Colonies?

How much earlier could the Spanish colonies 1) have the desire to be independent and 2) actually be able to achieve it?
 
Do successful native uprisings count? Because if so that could have happened pretty damn early, probably the earlier the better.
 
It would be difficult.

Spain screwed itself in the 18th century when it decided to become more involved in the colonies. Before then, Spain had been taking a mostly hands-off approach for years. Because the Peninsulares (Spanish-born whites) weren't very common, the Criollos (People of Spanish descent) were among the highest rungs of Colonial society. Then in the 18th century more Peninsulares flooded into the colonies and the local Criollos' power waned as positions of prestige often going to the newcomers. This caused considerable resentment.

But this wasn't enough. The reason independence occurred was that Napoleon invaded Spain. Revolutionaries used the vacuum of authority to advance their cause. But even then, a large number of Latin Americans opposed independence, especially in modern day Bolivia/Peru.
 
Maybe the local governors, viceroys, leadership see Spain losing a major European war or feel they are getting short changed somehow

They throw off the Spanish and go from there.

If it's in the 16th or 17th century when this happensI can definitely see Spain making a go at reconquering the rebellious colonies.
 
Maybe the local governors, viceroys, leadership see Spain losing a major European war or feel they are getting short changed somehow

They throw off the Spanish and go from there.

If it's in the 16th or 17th century when this happensI can definitely see Spain making a go at reconquering the rebellious colonies.

Definitely not the 16th century, maybe in the late 17th century if something really bad happens to Spain.
 
It's difficult because all criollo rebellions were rebellions against local administrations, not against Spain. Picture the American revolution had the initial grievances were all due to Virginia and not the Crown. Only the lack of a 'legitimate' Spanish king allowed the 1810 push for rebellion to mean a Declaration of Independence, and even then the early criollo states were all officially loyal to the King.

You might be able to do that if you manage to create a power vacuum in Spain (maybe during the War of Spanish Succession) together with a criollo rebellion (not just mestizo or Native - those rebellions always failed because the economic power of the criollos was threatened by any mestizo rebellion) and maybe foreign support (this one's easy - a Criollo state would be open to trade with Britain and France, unlike the mercantilistic Viceroyalties which mostly just traded with Spain).
 
Well, the Latin American Wars of Independence could have extended to the whole of the empire, with the Philippines and Cuba joining in. :p
 
It would be difficult.

Spain screwed itself in the 18th century when it decided to become more involved in the colonies. Before then, Spain had been taking a mostly hands-off approach for years. Because the Peninsulares (Spanish-born whites) weren't very common, the Criollos (People of Spanish descent) were among the highest rungs of Colonial society. Then in the 18th century more Peninsulares flooded into the colonies and the local Criollos' power waned as positions of prestige often going to the newcomers. This caused considerable resentment.

But this wasn't enough. The reason independence occurred was that Napoleon invaded Spain. Revolutionaries used the vacuum of authority to advance their cause. But even then, a large number of Latin Americans opposed independence, especially in modern day Bolivia/Peru.
Then I guess I have an inverse question. How long could Spain hold on to its's colonies. It seems like long-term it just won't happen
 
One idea I've had is for the Aralda Plan, of setting up autonomous kingdoms, to be accepted, and then eventually see the kingdoms decentralize from the Spanish central authority to the point that they are virtually independent.

Then I guess I have an inverse question. How long could Spain hold on to its's colonies. It seems like long-term it just won't happen

Assuming no Peninsular War, I think you could have Spain keep the majority of their colonies indefinitely, actually, assuming it's able to reform. But I doubt that reform will happen without the French to strengthen the cause of reform, and so you'll see generation in a few generations or so.
 
Assuming no Peninsular War, I think you could have Spain keep the majority of their colonies indefinitely, actually, assuming it's able to reform.

I don't think that would be feasible. People will continue to want a greater voice in government, and Spain will eventually face the same problem Portugal did. If Spain does keep its colonies and integrates them as equal provinces of a greater nation, it will go from the center of a world empire to a small peripheral region far away from the metropole.
 
One idea I've had is for the Aralda Plan, of setting up autonomous kingdoms, to be accepted, and then eventually see the kingdoms decentralize from the Spanish central authority to the point that they are virtually independent.

The what plan? I've never heard of this before.
 
Then I guess I have an inverse question. How long could Spain hold on to its's colonies. It seems like long-term it just won't happen

I'd give them a few more decades at least. I think you would see demands for greater autonomy and Mexico and New Granada would be like Spain's Canada. The areas with a history of native revolts (the former Incan Empire in particular), were loyalist strongholds and were the last places in the Continental Americas to break free of Spain. In fact, they probably would have stayed as Spanish colonies if Bolivar hadn't liberated them.

This probably keeps Spain more relevant in the future, as these autonomous regions will be allies of Spain most likely.

Same thing probably happens for Brazil.
 
Could Tupac Amaru II revolt have had any chance of success? And what about the Comuneros revolt in New Granada?

There were also some (minor) separatist mumblings here in Brazil, at the end of the XVIII century, in Minas Gerais and Bahia. I can't say for sure (but I don't think) if they could have led to something noteworthy.
 
The what plan? I've never heard of this before.

In the wake of the American Revolution, there was a proposal by members of the Spanish government to create vassal kings in the various Viceroyalties of Spain. It didn't get through, but if it did, this could make the face of colonial independence very different indeed.
 
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