Earlier French Surrender in 1869.

Reading a book on the siege of Paris I discovered a claim that Bismark offered terms to France based on paying 3 billion francs and ceding Lorraine but warned that if the war continued it would go to 3 billion and both Alsace and Lorraine.

If true how might France have been convinced to surrender earlier and what would the consequences have been with a France 2 billion francs wealthier and still owning Alsace?
 

The Sandman

Banned
Are you sure you didn't get Alsace and Lorraine mixed up, or that your source didn't? Because geographically and culturally, it would make far more sense for Bismarck to have demanded Alsace.
 
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