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I define Western Europe as the modern boundaries of the British Isles, the Benelux area, France and the Iberian Peninsula.

With PoDs starting no earlier than the Year 1000, could the status of women in regards to the franchise, property rights, employability etc. be fast-tracked towards equality with men? I think most people would place the later 20th Century as generally being the time when women achieved equality, at least on legalistic terms, but cold the period have occurred earlier, I'm the earlier 20th Century or even the centuries before it?
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