Deleted member 1487
WW1/2 agriculture is hardly like modern US agriculture in terms of mechanization. It was a small part of the economy, because it was effectively written off as an economic sector so that Britain could specialize in industrial production for export to the colonies, while the colonies provided them with food. Classic Ricardian economic theory. It was a minor part of the overall economy and in peace time serviced less than half British food needs IIRC.You keep assuming they are a small part of their economy just because they didn't employ a large number of people. That's sort of like saying America doesn't produce a lot of crops because agriculture employs so few people.
Maybe Britain imported most of its crops! But it'd be nice to see evidence.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Depression_of_British_Agriculture
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agriculture_in_the_United_Kingdom#1850_to_1939By 1900 wheat-growing land was only a little over 50% of the total of 1872 and shrank further until 1914.[30]
Subsequently, Britain became the most industrialised major country with the smallest proportion of its resources devoted to agriculture.[36]
Between 1809 and 1879, 88% of British millionaires had been landowners; between 1880 and 1914 this figure dropped to 33% and fell further after the First World War.[40]
Britain's dependence on imported grain during the 1830s was 2%; during the 1860s it was 24%; during the 1880s it was 45%, for corn it was 65%.[37] By 1914 Britain was dependent on imports for four-fifths of her wheat and 40% of her meat.[38]
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Depression_of_British_Agriculture#cite_note-40
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agriculture_in_the_United_Kingdom#1939_to_1945
I hope that's enough evidence for ya