Will the king of England bother with paying obeisance to the King of France for Normandy in this circumstance?
I don't know, why did Aragonese kings ended up being vassals of Capetians for several places? Maybe because they felt they had a claim on them.
Heck, we could wonder why Rollo ever felt that being vassal of the king was too much to ask for settling up.
Note, furthermore, that feudality as it was present politically in France did downplayed the effective hommage (while holding its symbolic presence in high regard), and the general obedience features, due to a particularily important defragmentation of power.
I described how an English king could end up with such claim in the first link, that I propose to read for (small) details if you didn't. Basically instead of an important Saxon house inheriting the title somehow from Richard III in exile (maybe trough matrimonial union with Normans), you have a member of the royal house doing it, and claiming Normandy as duke.
Would it last? Would the ducal title be tied up to the royal title? I don't think it's really likely for both questions, altough there's more chance as I said that a weaker Normandy might come out of this, possibly ruled by a French dynasty with Saxon origins.
Again, I simply don't see this happening after the middle of the XIth century, and after the IOTL conquest of England.
(A detail, but you seem to often quote entiere posts just to ask a short question? For readability reasons, you could just replace the quoted post with -snip- or just quote the part you want do discuss).