Differences if the Philippines was colonized by Portugal instead of Spain?

To begin with, the country probably won't have the name "Phillipines", as it was thus named to homage one of the Kings named Phillip of Spain.

Portugal might seek a much greater focus on eastern Asia than it did OTL, where it was focused in India, Brazil and Africa (in this order), with but a minor colonial presence near Bali and New Guinea. Depending on the PoD, a Portuguese conquest of Phillipines might even make them less interested in Brazil (which until the late 17th Century was a backwater), and might make them decided the reconquest of a lost Brazil (say, if France or the Netherlands grab a piece of South America) is not worth the effort. This, in turn, might devolve the Portuguese into a greater exploration of Oceania... likely putting them at odds with the Dutch, and likely Spain (if it indeed has any presence in Asia whatsoever).

Really, depending on the PoD and how thorough is the Portuguese colonization, this could have interesting implications, especially regarding their interest in the colonial empire in South America. This will also probably means a greater Portuguese interference in China, Korea and Japan (considering they were the "pioneers" of European voyage to eastern Asia, this is something that opens another window of opportunities).
 
The lack of Manila galleons is going to have huge implications; this would leave the Spanish no real Pacific footholds, and would deprive them of their biggest market for silver (the Ming). Within the Philippines, I'd argue there'd be less Chinese, since the Portuguese traded directly from Macau. If there is an Iberian Union, of course, this problem solves itself -- but the best case scenario for Spain's silver is using the Portuguese as a middleman or of course keeping Portugal under Spanish rule.

Owning those islands also gives Portugal a base if Malacca is conquered, and has incredible proximity to Ternate and Tidore, allowing them to continue being a significant presence in the spice trade. I don't know if they'd ignore Brasil, but if Asia remained the center of focus vis-a-vis Brasil and North Africa, then I could see Portugal pressing less hard to retake Angola and Brasil from the Dutch -- and probably having a better presence to try and keep the Dutch out of Asia.
 
Depending on the PoD, a Portuguese conquest of Phillipines might even make them less interested in Brazil (which until the late 17th Century was a backwater), and might make them decided the reconquest of a lost Brazil (say, if France or the Netherlands grab a piece of South America) is not worth the effort. This, in turn, might devolve the Portuguese into a greater exploration of Oceania... likely putting them at odds with the Dutch, and likely Spain (if it indeed has any presence in Asia whatsoever).
Only in the case of the French in Rio in the 1560's. By 1640 Brazilian sugar was already the heart of the Portuguese Colonial Empire, generating more revenue than spices from Asia.
 
They would have lost it to the Dutch.And Spain would try to colonize the other islands in which they had holdings like Guam, Melanasia or Taiwan.Or maybe they would have just declared war on Portugal which at the time of Phillip the II or Charles the I wouldn't have taken much to force Portugal into leaving the island to Spain
 
Actually, if Malacca was not conquered the Spanish colonization of the Philippines would likely be butterflied since it was said that Enrique the slave of magellan is believed to have originated in what is now philippines..
 
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