Just a little question I'd like to ask about the difference between potential butterflies from reverse outcomes in the above battles. Assume total austrian victory in either.
Facts to consider:
-In the former, Spain was still governed by Charles IV. In the latter, the Peninsular War was already in full swing.
-In the former, the Holy Roman Empire was still de jure functioning. In the latter, it had already been dissolved.
-Russia participated in the former battle, but not the latter.
So... how different would the peace terms be between a french defeat at Austerlitz and a defeat at Wagram?
Facts to consider:
-In the former, Spain was still governed by Charles IV. In the latter, the Peninsular War was already in full swing.
-In the former, the Holy Roman Empire was still de jure functioning. In the latter, it had already been dissolved.
-Russia participated in the former battle, but not the latter.
So... how different would the peace terms be between a french defeat at Austerlitz and a defeat at Wagram?