I am no linguist and do not know Old Norse, but this article has some interesting points: http://www.apollon.uio.no/english/articles/2012/4-english-scandinavian.html
It argues that modern English developed from Old Norse, not from Old English. One thing it does not take up is the fact that the definite article in modern Scandinavian is placed at the end of the noun, but as far as I understand, in Old Norse it was possible to place the definite article either at the end of the noun or before the noun. One question comes up if their argument is correct: Why did the areas that were never conquered by the Vikings change language?
It argues that modern English developed from Old Norse, not from Old English. One thing it does not take up is the fact that the definite article in modern Scandinavian is placed at the end of the noun, but as far as I understand, in Old Norse it was possible to place the definite article either at the end of the noun or before the noun. One question comes up if their argument is correct: Why did the areas that were never conquered by the Vikings change language?