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During the centuries of Roman rule in Britain, did Latin and local British languages creolize to a significant degree? A creole, as opposed to the unsecured jargon of a pidgin, which surely existed, happens when children learn the pidgin as their mother tongue, which only happens if they aren't raised by fluent speakers of any of the pidginized languages. Since there was only mixing of two cultural groups, then couldn't have been initially common, but did it happen anyway? Also, did the mixing of many groups of Britons create of pan-British creole, as opposed to any mixing with Latin?
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