Did Latin and British Languages Creolize?

During the centuries of Roman rule in Britain, did Latin and local British languages creolize to a significant degree? A creole, as opposed to the unsecured jargon of a pidgin, which surely existed, happens when children learn the pidgin as their mother tongue, which only happens if they aren't raised by fluent speakers of any of the pidginized languages. Since there was only mixing of two cultural groups, then couldn't have been initially common, but did it happen anyway? Also, did the mixing of many groups of Britons create of pan-British creole, as opposed to any mixing with Latin?
 
If we're talking about the variety that later evolved into Welsh, this seems unlikely, since Welsh retains a lot of morphological and phonological complexity from Proto-Celtic, of the type which usually disappears in a pidgin/creole situation. However, that doesn't preclude the possibility that a Latin-British pidgin or creole did exist during the Roman period, but went unrecorded before going extinct.
 
Yeah, what Qhapaq says.
I'd have expected there would have been influence analogous to Norman(-French) on Early Middle English: an increase in parallel then specialised vocabulary. This is not just a oneway street though - Latin picked up a fair amount from the Gaulish dialects.
But any creolisation could simply have been lost as the need for it is outweighed by Latin or local Welsh usage.

Like with hybrids in the natural world creoles need a survivability beyond their parent languages, if it serves no use as a language then it will die out fairly rapidly.
 
Yeah, what Qhapaq says.
I'd have expected there would have been influence analogous to Norman(-French) on Early Middle English: an increase in parallel then specialised vocabulary. This is not just a oneway street though - Latin picked up a fair amount from the Gaulish dialects.
But any creolisation could simply have been lost as the need for it is outweighed by Latin or local Welsh usage.

Like with hybrids in the natural world creoles need a survivability beyond their parent languages, if it serves no use as a language then it will die out fairly rapidly.
Thanks. You're right, if people just grow up speaking one language or the other, rather than a Bickertonian upbringing by pidgin speakers, people will just code-switch or be monolingual.
Of course, this discussion is ultimately moot, as Celtic got steamrolled by the language we're typing in here.
 
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Abhakhazia

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Unfortunately, I think it's difficult to tell as the regions in the South East of England that were the most likely to be Latinized linguistically, due to proximity to the Continent, were subsequently the ones that received the most Anglo-Saxon settlers in the 5th and 6th century.
 
Unfortunately, I think it's difficult to tell as the regions in the South East of England that were the most likely to be Latinized linguistically, due to proximity to the Continent, were subsequently the ones that received the most Anglo-Saxon settlers in the 5th and 6th century.

So the Southeast of England was probably the homeland of the British Romance language?

Yes there was a British Latin creole aka: British Latin though there is some disagreement about how disinct from Continental Latin it actually was.

That wasn't a creole language anymore than the Gallic Latin of that era was a creole of Latin and Gaulish (or nowadays French for that matter is a creole of Latin, Gaulish, and Frankish). That was a Romance language which without the Anglo-Saxons might've survived on its own and possibly dominated Great Britain assuming British didn't dominate.
 
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