Didn't Edward I/III claim suzerainty?
Yes - that's the Lord Paramount bit. I'm trying to find out if they ever claimed the right to direct rule, either by claiming the throne of Scotland, or annexing the place to England...
I believe Edward claimed to have annexed Scotland after the campaign that overthrew Baillol, but never the crown.
Ah, this makes sense. So he then claimed England covered the entire isle of Britain?
Every king of England claimed overlordship over Scotland (and Wales), at least since Aethelstan. Edward never claimed the throne, since in his mind you do not claim what is already yours.Did he ever claim the throne, per se, or just overlordship. In other words, did he claim that the king of scotland would be a sub king under himself?
Every king of England claimed overlordship over Scotland (and Wales), at least since Aethelstan. Edward never claimed the throne, since in his mind you do not claim what is already yours.
Ironically, Edward's attempts to enforce this are what lead to England losing any real overlordship over Scotland.