Did Edward I or Edward II ever claim the throne of Scotland

I'm reading about the Scottish wars of independence, and the internet seems to say conflicting things about it. I know Edward I claimed to be Lord Paramount over Scotland, but at any point did he and his son claim the direct Kingship?
 
Yes and no. While, at one point there was no Scotish king Edward I took the job until John Balliol took over. Balliol seemed to have the best claim.
Try to get hold of a copy of Edward I by Marc Morris, he has written a nice book about something that is a bit of a mess in Scotland.
 
Yes - that's the Lord Paramount bit. I'm trying to find out if they ever claimed the right to direct rule, either by claiming the throne of Scotland, or annexing the place to England...

Ah yes. Well, there was a vague claim down from Queen Edith-Matilda, daughter of King Malcolm. ;)
 
Originally Edward I wanted to marry his son Edward (later II) to IIRC princess Margaret the maid of Norway, but she died beforehand. That would have been the way to gain the throne of Scotland for his house.
He still claimed suzerainty over Scotland though; however he wasn't the first or last king of England to do so.

@ Velasco: that claim was quite distant; even the count of Holland and Zeeland (IIRC Floris/Florence) had a better claim (arguably the strongest outsider, but nothing more than that). .
 
I believe Edward claimed to have annexed Scotland after the campaign that overthrew Baillol, but never the crown.
 
Ah, this makes sense. So he then claimed England covered the entire isle of Britain?

I think so, in effect - Scotland being reduced to the "land of" rather than the "realm of" Scotland.

I can't remember where I read that or what the basis was off the top of my head, though.
 
Did he ever claim the throne, per se, or just overlordship. In other words, did he claim that the king of scotland would be a sub king under himself?
 
Did he ever claim the throne, per se, or just overlordship. In other words, did he claim that the king of scotland would be a sub king under himself?
Every king of England claimed overlordship over Scotland (and Wales), at least since Aethelstan. Edward never claimed the throne, since in his mind you do not claim what is already yours.

Ironically, Edward's attempts to enforce this are what lead to England losing any real overlordship over Scotland.
 
Every king of England claimed overlordship over Scotland (and Wales), at least since Aethelstan. Edward never claimed the throne, since in his mind you do not claim what is already yours.

Ironically, Edward's attempts to enforce this are what lead to England losing any real overlordship over Scotland.

There's a difference between overlordship and direct rule, however...
 
Top