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In a surviving Latin-speaking Roman empire when could we, if we would, see the slow removal of most inflexions in both the written and spoken languages. I'm not sure to what degree that Vulgar Latin and Late (Written) Latin and converging and to what extent was the spoken vocabulary was simplified but I would think most of the inflexions had started to phase out in one way or another.
As these threads usually lock up with people requesting a scenario to work on here's one.
Rome survives and holds or pushes back the Germans over the Rhine with Theodosius beating back his disease at least for a time.
Arcadius and Honorius get murdered.
Yadda yadda.
The empire whether the migration period in the West and East.
Can be two separate Empires until OTL 1300 AD.
The West ends triumphant if two empires.
If needed the language base is expanded through Latin language expansion into the Greek East completely or partially.
Empire takes Ireland and Scotland somewhere along this timeline.
Eventually in 1700 AD OTL by the latest, state-mandated public schooling starts due to an Industrial revolution or some other cause.
Can have democracy 'back' by the end if needed but that really would lack much bearing on a language What-If.