The postwar Soviet Bloc's female exclusion acts from party positions does not happen. Some said they took motivation from the Spanish Communists previous refusal to allow women the right to vote because of the sway of the Priests on female voters and the Conservative Party in the UK's success with female voters against the more male dominated Labour movement. But really, Stalin's famous misogyny was merely confirmed by the betrayal of the USSR by Frau Hitler.
OOC:
Feminism, or at least equality of the sexes, has a long history in marxism, going all the way back to the Communist Manifesto and especially Engels' book on the family, property, and the state, and continuing through the early Bolsheviks. I really think it would take a LOT more than one godawful woman leader(even on the moral level of a Hitler) to get the Communists to renounce that whole aspect of their platform and opt for outright male supremacy.
North Korea, on the other hand, did and does propogate racialist theories derived from the same looney-tune sources that informed European "scientific" racism. But I believe that was originally an imposition of the Japanese colonialists, which the North Korean leadership(along with the dictators in the South) continued with after the occupation, as a quick-and-easy tool for building national cohesion. Maybe if Russia had at one point been conquered by the Whites or later the Nazis, who then enforced a highly patriarchal ideology on the population, the Communists would absorb that, and then, with unintended irony, turn it against the former occupiers after liberation. And, even then, I doubt the Soviets would become explicitly anti-feminist, more just implicitly so, eg. mocking supposed feminine traits of western leaders, extoling women who serve the motherland by raising children etc(and some of that took place under Stalin IOTL anyway).