I'm sure something along the lines of this thread has been asked before and this is probably a noobish topic but I shall ask anyway.
What is the plausibility that D-Day does not take place at Normandy, France but instead in the Balkans somewhere? Would it be possible for the staff of the Supreme Headquarters Allied Expeditionary Force or (SHAEF), particularly Lieutenant General Sir Frederick E. Morgan, to shy away from the idea of an invasion of France after the failure of the Dieppe Raid and wanting to prevent a possible Dunkirk evacuation scenario but on a larger scale for both situations?
Morgan was appointed chief of staff to the supreme Allied Commander in mid-March 1943 and he began planning for the invasion of Europe before Eisenhower's appointment in December 1943.
I believe that this is possible because the Allies had control of the Med. Sea, the invasion of Italy would begin in September 1943 and on 19 Nov. 1943 the line stalled at the Gor River and Cassino effectively giving control of the southern half of Italy to the Allies.
The SHAEF would have to rely on the Italian campaign to at least succeed as much as it did in OTL and assuming the Balkan invasion outline is accepted at the same time the Normandy invasion outline was in OTL troops, equipment, supplies ect. could begin moving into Allied North Africa and Southern Italy. This could allow for a two pronged attack into the Balkans by going into Greece from Africa and to Albania by Italy.
So is this plausible or ASB? Take it away.
What is the plausibility that D-Day does not take place at Normandy, France but instead in the Balkans somewhere? Would it be possible for the staff of the Supreme Headquarters Allied Expeditionary Force or (SHAEF), particularly Lieutenant General Sir Frederick E. Morgan, to shy away from the idea of an invasion of France after the failure of the Dieppe Raid and wanting to prevent a possible Dunkirk evacuation scenario but on a larger scale for both situations?
Morgan was appointed chief of staff to the supreme Allied Commander in mid-March 1943 and he began planning for the invasion of Europe before Eisenhower's appointment in December 1943.
I believe that this is possible because the Allies had control of the Med. Sea, the invasion of Italy would begin in September 1943 and on 19 Nov. 1943 the line stalled at the Gor River and Cassino effectively giving control of the southern half of Italy to the Allies.
The SHAEF would have to rely on the Italian campaign to at least succeed as much as it did in OTL and assuming the Balkan invasion outline is accepted at the same time the Normandy invasion outline was in OTL troops, equipment, supplies ect. could begin moving into Allied North Africa and Southern Italy. This could allow for a two pronged attack into the Balkans by going into Greece from Africa and to Albania by Italy.
So is this plausible or ASB? Take it away.