Czechoslovakia getting part of Poland?

Could Czechoslovakia have plausibly annexed some of the majority west-slavic catholic land to its north and east? Perhaps following WW2 USSR could have left East Germany largely intact and divided Poland between itself and communist Czechoslovakia? At the very least Silesia, which has for centuries been closely associated with Czechia and Moravia, seems like it could have been added.

Would a name change have been likely, to Czechoslovakiasilesia or Zapadoslovia? Would the state have been more or less likely to survive to the present day?

Getting really crazy, could Czechoslovakia have gotten a port? Perhaps if the Soviets had been less successful Czechoslovakia could have ended up as a neutral buffer state between the west and east? All of silesia and a thin strip along the east of the Oder? The allies were certainly interested in having a strong state bordering the communists; part of the reason West Germany's borders were hardly touched. With soviets doing very poorly West germany might have been balkanized and divided among its neighbours, and the west slav lands might have been given to a allied friendly Czechoslovakia so as to immediately have a strong border, instead of setting up a allied friendly Polish or government or 'Pomerania-Silesia.'

Thoughts?
 
For What Purpose?

What purpose would this division have served? You are dividing up Poland like it was an aggressor. The Western Allies had gone to war over Poland and even though they had acknowledged that Poland would be in the Soviet's sphere of influence they still wanted some form of a Polish state.

Additionally, while Poland and Czechoslovakia had some disputed border lands, they weren't large pieces of territory. Taking over Silesia would have added a whole new ethnicity to the country which is something Czechoslovakia wouldn't want to deal with.
 
Poland has been divided up numerous times OTL, including after WW2. The scenario I gave was just one possibility, perhaps the allies initiating a partition is improbable. I'm wondering if there's any way Czechoslovakia could have annexed significant amounts of territory to it's north and east. Perhaps the USSR chooses not to recreate poland, but instead divides the area between itself and communist Czechoslovakia.
 
Czechoslovakia wasn't Communist at the end of the war. Benes tried to re-establish a democratic government, he just wasn't able to do it with the Red Army in place and the NKVD subverting the ruling government. The Communists didn't take over until the beginning of 1948.

Yeah, Poland had been partitioned before but not by its supposed allies.

Again, why would Czechoslovakia want a region that is predominately German or Polish?
 
Only territory from pre war Poland in which Czechoslovakia, or to be more precise Slovak politicians were interested in were small areas of Polish Spisz and few villages in Polish Orawa where Slovak population was living. In late fall 1938 Poland gained some Slovak Spis and Orava which was regained by Slovaks in 1939. Also some villages with Slovak population from prewar Poland were incorporated into Slovak republic. After war when pre Munich borders were established Slovak population even petitioned Prague to keep them as part of Czechoslovakia. Prague however didn't want to bargain as they didn't want to loose Tesin area.

Many Slovaks eventually decided to relocate to Czechoslovakia to avoid polonization as well as attack of some Polish terrorists - for example Ogion who was eventually executed by Polish communist government.
 
At the very least Silesia, which has for centuries been closely associated with Czechia and Moravia, seems like it could have been added.

Silesia was part of Germany before WWII, so giving it to Czechoslovakia wouldn't have left East Germany intact.

Yeah, Poland had been partitioned before but not by its supposed allies.

Poland did lose territory after WWII - the city of Lviv and surrounding area was transferred to the Ukraine.

Cheers,
Nigel.
 
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