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As you may or may not know Soviet Union and Russian Federation got/gets much of its grain as well as a substantial part of its meat supply from North America. Although I am not sure when this trend started (though I bet it was post-WW2) it was not the case with Tsarist Russia. I heard U.S.S.R.'s inefficient collective farming system be blamed for this trend -- but is it realy at fault? After all, Tsarist Russia had periodic famines and at times was a food importer just like U.S.S.R.
Could Russia/U.S.S.R. theoreticaly feed its population with the amount of arable land it has?