Could the Weimar Republic have defeated Poland?

(Totally not asking this for a roleplay game, but...)

We all know that the Treaty of Versailles heavily limited Germany's army. And with the ceding of much German territory to Poland, there was ample casus belli for a war between Germany and Poland. Could Germany have defeated Poland had a war broken out in the 1920s?
 

BigBlueBox

Banned
You realize that France was occupying the Rhineland all the way until 1930 right? France could seize more than half of Germany’s industrial capacity within a week. The Germans wouldn’t even make it to Poznan.
 
What was the state of the German mechanized units around this time (tanks trucks armored cars) and when did Germany develop its mechanized blitz and encirclement doctrines, because if they have not done it yet there chance of victory even in a 1 on 1 goes from shaky to nonexistent. The reason for this is if Germany is beholden to the treaty they need a fast war because without numbers on their side even with superior equipment, once Poland has time to enact mass mobilization they are done.
 
The Freikorps might help out with the numbers game somewhat. Also, if the Germans attack in say early 1920, on the generous assumption that they're able, the Poles will have already thrown everything they have against the Reds.
 
Since Poland would be exhausted from the Soviet-Polish War, I don't doubt that the Reichswehr would make some progress, but that doesn't mean anything. The French and British would crush Germany within a week. Recognition of Polish sovereignty was a condition of the Treaty of Versailles. The British and French would not tolerate Weimar Germany challenging the status quo so blatantly. The French would move in on the Ruhr and seize it.
 

Khanzeer

Banned
What was the state of the German mechanized units around this time (tanks trucks armored cars) and when did Germany develop its mechanized blitz and encirclement doctrines, because if they have not done it yet there chance of victory even in a 1 on 1 goes from shaky to nonexistent. The reason for this is if Germany is beholden to the treaty they need a fast war because without numbers on their side even with superior equipment, once Poland has time to enact mass mobilization they are done.
How was the fuel situation ? and was there any meaningful coordiation between the numerous freikorps and army units ?

I suspect far from a blitz it would be long war of attrition and in which the germans would be bogged down for quite sometime
 
It depends when in the twenties, if it's 1923 then Germany has one of its most economically vital regions under foreign occupation, its economy is in a shambles, currency worthless, and facing internal threats from both the far-right and far-left, however if it's 1929 then Germany is once again an economic powerhouse, the Reichswehr is far along with its secret expansion and rearming and is barely taking steps to conceal it any longer. In the former scenario Germany would have struggled to defeat Luxembourg whereas in a latter an eventual Germany victory would be assured, provided no-one else intervened.
 
It depends when in the twenties, if it's 1923 then Germany has one of its most economically vital regions under foreign occupation, its economy is in a shambles, currency worthless, and facing internal threats from both the far-right and far-left, however if it's 1929 then Germany is once again an economic powerhouse, the Reichswehr is far along with its secret expansion and rearming and is barely taking steps to conceal it any longer. In the former scenario Germany would have struggled to defeat Luxembourg whereas in a latter an eventual Germany victory would be assured, provided no-one else intervened.

LOL, that last clause does a lot of work! https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Franco-Polish_alliance_(1921)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occupation_of_the_Rhineland (which notes that the occupation didn't end until 1930--and even that was "premature" in the sense that the Versailles treaty had provided for a 15 year occupation).
 

The OP clearly states a war between Germany and Poland, not Poland & France. I don't think that sort of scenario is particularly plausible but it was the one put forward, not something I cooked up.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occupation_of_the_Rhineland (which notes that the occupation didn't end until 1930--and even that was "premature" in the sense that the Versailles treaty had provided for a 15 year occupation).

I was referring to the occupation of the Ruhr rather than the Rhineland, although the latter had been in the process of a staged withdrawal ever since Locarno and by 1929 the area of French occupation was relatively small, more significant was the LoN control of the Saar basin although this in itself wouldn't have been a hindrance to Germany defeating Poland provided there was no direct French intervention.
 
And that's a caveat I thought was important to mention, but it's still not what the OP asked.

The OP did not specify "No French intervention." At least not explicitly, and I don't think implicitly either. (E.g., "could the CSA have defeated the USA" does not necessarily mean "without British intervention"; in fact, in about half such threads, British intervention is proposed as the means of having the CSA win...)

I realized that your post specified no French intervention, and I simply said that I think that's unrealistic.
 
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