Could the US have enforced the Monroe Doctrine during the Civil War?

Odd you think the USN wasn't world spanning in the 1860.

However did Perry get to Japan?

Via Madeira (Portuguese), St Helena (British), Cape Town (British), Mauritius (British), Ceylon(British), Singapore (British), Macao (Portuguese), Hong Kong (British) and Shanghai (multinational concession from China). Now some of those port calls he did not re-coal but he would have been mighty short of the stuff without being able to pick up fresh supplies along the route.

Eh, actually the point of the thread is to just wonder if in a general sense if the Union could have, while it was still fighting the Confederacy, have managed to enforce the Monroe Doctrine at the same time.

I'm not sure the Union necessarily has to be able to match European naval power to do that. No, it wouldn't have been able to match the British, French and Spanish if they joined into one group, but the Spanish and British didn't have the same interests in the attack on Mexico, so really all the Union has to do is help speed up France's decision that "This is a waste of resources/time" (and the Spanish probably wouldn't have been to much trouble for the Union if they contested them and their attempted retaking of one of their former colonies in the Caribbean)

The answer is no not because of the balance of force alone. The US needed the good opinion of World Powers if only to make suppressing the rebellion quicker and cheaper, flexing its muscles in other areas would have distracted those powers from the fact it was putting down a rebellion something with which as a rule they approved of. The US do not want to make even the Spanish but of course messing with the Spanish on Hispaniola would have potentially have had knock on effects on other powers, decide that this Southern rebellion was one of the exceptions. The birth of the US itself provides an example of what could happen when other powers decided to make such an exception but the Lincoln administration was aware of the fact that its duty lay in getting as few of its loyal citizens as possible hurt whilst suppressing the secession.

That said was the French intervention in Mexico entirely detrimental to US interests? While the French were keeping the Mexicans busy they were not making so much trouble for the US at a time it was a bit distracted.
 
Now some of those port calls he did not re-coal but he would have been mighty short of the stuff without being able to pick up fresh supplies along the route.

Lucky the 'Black Fleet' mainly relied on Sail power, as even after the Civil War, the USN ran on Sails for economic reasons.

Why would British commercial Ports deny US Coal and Victuals?
Relations were cordial between US and UK at the time

The US had Trade Treaties since the 1830s in SEAsia, and the East Indies Squadron since 1844 and Yangtze River Patrol since 1854
 
The US had Trade Treaties since the 1830s in SEAsia, and the East Indies Squadron since 1844 and Yangtze River Patrol since 1854
And Chile have The same trade Treaties since 1848, a Powerfull Pacific squadron since mid 1860( Chincha Islands war), and enough forcé to rebuke USA "diplomátic" intervention in the War of the Pacific, and Colombia, whith periodicall militar tour to Asia and Europe, but no one claim this make them World spaning power.
Then again what was your point?
 
Lucky the 'Black Fleet' mainly relied on Sail power, as even after the Civil War, the USN ran on Sails for economic reasons.

Why would British commercial Ports deny US Coal and Victuals?
Relations were cordial between US and UK at the time

The US had Trade Treaties since the 1830s in SEAsia, and the East Indies Squadron since 1844 and Yangtze River Patrol since 1854

I imagine this would be applying in a scenario where it's Palmerson or Russel, rather than Emperor Napoleon, stirring the pot over some issue or another. Not really sure why, given the UK enjoyed benefits from the system of Latin American markets being open to free trade since it meant she could profit will it producing potential points of conflict with other GP's that might reducing her freedom of action or the costs of maintaining a client regeime, but if it did happen the UK would probably restrict access to US warships as a matter of course (commercial hulls flying the Stars and Stripes are a different matter)
 
Odd you think the USN wasn't world spanning in the 1860.

However did Perry get to Japan?

The help of other maritime powers. The US was not the premier naval power of its day, and its power projection was limited to what it could do via other maritime powers.

Pushing ships to the coast of Africa or Japan is one thing, going toe to toe with the largest battle fleets in the world in the 1860s is quite another.

The Civil War USN was not going to be capable of (and made no effort to) stopping serious incursions by foreign powere in the Caribbean, Mexico, or South America.

In 1862 it would have been completely helpless to a descent on its shores by a foreign power as Congressional studies of the period found, and did not possess a major check on foreign ironclad warships until well into 1863 (the Monitor provided the basis for a build up, but it wasn't going to contest more than one ironclad at a time).

An interesting examination of this can be found in the book Clad in Iron.
 
I imagine this would be applying in a scenario where it's Palmerson or Russel, rather than Emperor Napoleon, stirring the pot over some issue or another. Not really sure why, given the UK enjoyed benefits from the system of Latin American markets being open to free trade since it meant she could profit will it producing potential points of conflict with other GP's that might reducing her freedom of action or the costs of maintaining a client regeime, but if it did happen the UK would probably restrict access to US warships as a matter of course (commercial hulls flying the Stars and Stripes are a different matter)

It is not that I disagree with your post, I mostly do. However there was a very simple question posed as to the how, which I answered and is an indisputable matter of record. On the second question the point is not so much the US would not receive customary assistance from the British within the norms of neutrality as it would be diplomatically embarrassing when they are asking the British not to do the same for the Confederates. The big impact here would probably be on the award of damages in regards the Alabama Claim. Even if the US say sent raiders and escorts into the Far East via Portuguese ports or South American ports in a Franco-American war or quasi war again that is precedent that weakens the US general position on such matters.

Finally though and once again why bother? The French are keeping the Mexicans occupied, their intervention allows the US to play the good guys rather than the guys occupying ancestral Mexican lands. Once the secession is over the US government can gradually turn up the diplomatic and "oh where did I drop my shiny rifle?" type heat until the French get the message. The same with the Spanish.
 
And Chile have The same trade Treaties since 1848, a Powerfull Pacific squadron since mid 1860( Chincha Islands war), and enough forcé to rebuke USA "diplomátic" intervention in the War of the Pacific, and Colombia, whith periodicall militar tour to Asia and Europe, but no one claim this make them World spaning power.
Then again what was your point?

Did Chile have Mediterranean, African and Atlantic Squadrons?

Maybe that's why no-one considered them a major naval power in the 19thC
 
The help of other maritime powers. The US was not the premier naval power of its day, and its power projection was limited to what it could do via other maritime powers.
from https://www.alternatehistory.com/forum/threads/top-5-navies-of-the-1800s.327198/#post-9637993
1851 Navies by Guns
Great Britain 18,000
France 8,000
Russia 7,000
Netherlands 2,500
Sweden 2,400
United States 2,257
Denmark 1,120
Sardinia 900
Turkey 800
Spain 721
Portugal 700
Austria 600
Norway 560
Naples 484
Greece 131
Prussia 114
Belgium 36
Tuscany 15
 
Your quote says that sloops 'rated as high as 26 guns... overlapped "third-class frigates".' But that's a conditional which doesn't apply to the six-gun Kearsarge, which is clearly a sloop in both US and Royal Navy terminology.

Rating broadside guns and pivot guns being equal, is a mistake. A pair 11" Dahlgrens with 166 pound shot is a bit more effective than a row of 32 pdrs, and more so when firing shells
 

per the chart above, how many Naval guns did they have in 1851?
 
per the chart above, how many Naval guns did they have in 1851?
I don't Even could get The source of Said Chart so I can't refute it
But by 1851 Chile have 6 ships of líne and around 30 guns, not bad for a country that have barely 33 years of independence.
 
I don't Even could get The source of Said Chart so I can't refute it
But by 1851 Chile have 6 ships of líne and around 30 guns, not bad for a country that have barely 33 years of independence.


During the entire Revolution, the US operated 65 ships in the Continental Navy, with 1271 guns.

However, by 1784, the vast majority had been lost during that conflict. Not surprising, given the RN was the largest and best Navy on Earth.
 
Eh, actually the point of the thread is to just wonder if in a general sense if the Union could have, while it was still fighting the Confederacy, have managed to enforce the Monroe Doctrine at the same time. I'm not sure the Union necessarily has to be able to match European naval power to do that.
I think what we really need to take into consideration is the probability that the US will plough resources into these ships for little or no result.

Lucky the 'Black Fleet' mainly relied on Sail power, as even after the Civil War, the USN ran on Sails for economic reasons.
And yet in biographies of Perry we find sentences like 'The outward passage to China afforded the officers of Mississippi plenty of sightseeing, thanks to her need for coal' and 'The Commodore... flattered himself that he could have negotiated a new treaty with Thailand; but in 1853, after his first visit to Japan, he could not spare the coal, and now he had no time.' There seems to be some disagreement here.

Why would British commercial Ports deny US Coal and Victuals?
Relations were cordial between US and UK at the time
Because the US insisted, of course.

'In a subsequent conversation with Lord Lyons, Mr Seward said "that France, and, he thought, all the other Powers of Europe, refused to allow privateers to remain for more than twenty-four hours in their ports..." The Orders of January 1862 complied... in this respect with the desire of the American Government. These Orders required every ship-of-war or privateer of either belligerent which should enter British waters to depart within twenty-four hours afterwards, except in case of stress of weather or of her requiring provision, or things necessary for the subsistence of her crew, or repairs. In either of these cases she was to put to sea as soon after the expiration of the twenty-four hours as possible, taking in no supplies beyond what might be necessary for immediate use, and no more coal than would carry her to the nearest port of her own country, or some nearer destination. Nor, after coaling once in British waters, was she to be suffered to coal again within three months unless by special permission.' (Mountague Bernard, A Historical Account of the Neutrality of Great Britain During the American Civil War, 1870)

Number of guns that are afloat... An important metric for determining where Navies rank, don't you agree?
Only when it suits the US, apparently - in the case of the Kearsarge, the number of guns is deemed irrelevant.

Rating broadside guns and pivot guns being equal, is a mistake
Tell that to the mid-nineteenth century United States navy, which rated Kearsarge as a six-gun sloop.

A pair 11" Dahlgrens with 166 pound shot is a bit more effective than a row of 32 pdrs, and more so when firing shells
I just want to be absolutely clear on this. Are you seriously saying that USS Kearsarge's two 11in Dalhgrens are 'more effective' than the Impératrice Eugénie's broadside? On the assumption that you are, allow me to illustrate exactly what this claim entails for the benefit of those less familiar with the numbers than I happen to be.

For a start, the French navy doesn't use a '32pdr'. Impératrice Eugénie mounts 30 30pdrs and 6 22cm (~9in) shell guns on her upper deck - we'll leave aside her spar deck for the minute, as you did say 'a row' and not the multiple rows which Eugénie actually carried. Per side, that's 15 30pdrs and 3 22cm shell guns (firing shells weighing c.59lb), meaning a throw weight of 627lb (450lb of solid shot and 177lb of shell). By contrast, the pair of 11in Dahlgrens would throw 268lb of shell or 332lb of shot, between 53% and 42% of the French ship's output from only one of her decks. And that's before we get into the quote from the Kearsarge's captain that 'There has not been a day in which it would have been safe to cast loose the pivot guns' - very awkward if you're counting on firing them at anybody.

Of course, the most crucial part of this is that all the numerical jiggery-pokery in the world won't change the fact that Kearsarge was rated a sloop.
 
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Number of guns that are afloat.

That's Cannon armed ships.

An important metric for determining where Navies rank, don't you agree?

So in 1851 the US is in the august company of the maritime powers of the Netherlands and Sweden, while being having 3.5x fewer guns than the Baltic and Black Sea bound Russians, 4x less than France, and a whopping 8x fewer guns than the British?

Perhaps a better metric might be the naval infrastructure, global power projection, and merchant marine size?

Or is this just admitting the US was a minor player at sea in this period?
 
So in 1851 the US is in the august company of the maritime powers of the Netherlands and Sweden, while being having 3.5x fewer guns than the Baltic and Black Sea bound Russians, 4x less than France, and a whopping 8x fewer guns than the British?

Perhaps a better metric might be the naval infrastructure, global power projection, and merchant marine size?

Or is this just admitting the US was a minor player at sea in this period?

Compared to the Royal Navy, every other country looked, and was, far weaker than the RN

No surprise there.

Feel Free to post up your own lists, like totals of the various Merchant Marines for the top ten countries in that gun list. I'm not going to do your work for you

But do note where the USN had Squadrons operating in the 19thC, and then where the others did.
Here, I'll help out with what the USN was doing in 1851
https://bluejacket.com/usn_ship_list_1851.htm

That puts them ahead of the others, and up with the top tier UK and France.
 
So in 1851 the US is in the august company of the maritime powers of the Netherlands and Sweden, while being having 3.5x fewer guns than the Baltic and Black Sea bound Russians, 4x less than France, and a whopping 8x fewer guns than the British?

Perhaps a better metric might be the naval infrastructure, global power projection, and merchant marine size?

Or is this just admitting the US was a minor player at sea in this period?

To be fair the US Merchant Marine on the eve of the Civil War was fairly respectable and carried perhaps two thirds of America's overseas trade. I am trying to find a good data source. What I do know off the top of my head is that the US fleet was still largely sail driven and had been relatively slow to adopt steam possibly because of a tradition of building arguably the best commercial sailing ships in the world?

The big issue is of course a lack of global infrastructure necessary to support sustained deployments.
 
Compared to the Royal Navy, every other country looked, and was, far weaker than the RN

No surprise there.

Feel Free to post up your own lists, like totals of the various Merchant Marines for the top ten countries in that gun list. I'm not going to do your work for you

But do note where the USN had Squadrons operating in the 19thC, and then where the others did.
Here, I'll help out with what the USN was doing in 1851
https://bluejacket.com/usn_ship_list_1851.htm

That puts them ahead of the others, and up with the top tier UK and France.

Again, what was this list supposed to prove in the first place?

You haven't refuted the notion that the US could only maintain overseas squadrons with the help of European powers who had the infrastructure to do it. All you've basically said is "the US has x number of guns and ships" which doesn't really mean anything. Where are the US owned bases, the US infrastructure for coaling stations and rearmament, the line of battle ships to control the high seas?

Just because the US has a ship operating in the East Indies doesn't make them capable of sustained power projection in the period. The Netherlands was doing the same thing, but they weren't relying on foreign bases for keeping their ships at sea. If the British, French, or other European powers decided to decline to grant the US the rights to use their ports, what is the US going to do?

The US was just a minor naval power in the period, and as history shows was unable to maintain its far flung commitments when a major war broke out, unlike its European competitors who most certainly did. During the Crimean War the British and French navies didn't pack up and return to European waters, while in the Civil War the US was forced to bring its warships home, then disperse them in penny packets in hunts for Confederate raiders.
 
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