Could the son of Germana de Foix get half of the americas?

The administrative organization indiana begins with the addition of the Indies to the Castilian Crown. These are incorporated, forgive the repetition, by way of "discovery" (res nullius). There is a papal grant in which Pope Alexander VI of gifts to the kings of Castile and Leon.

The problem that arises is whether this donation was made to Ferdinand V of Castile and II of Aragon or was made to Ferdinand and Isabella in his capacity as King of Castile and Aragon. what I mean is to what kingdom are incorporated the americas, the Crown of Aragon or the Crown of Castile.


Isabel understood that it was a donation that was to be perpetuated in the Crown of Castile, but Fernando took it as a gift from the Pope to a married couple in marital regime (an estate to both spouses) and therefore, dissolved the marriage (as what happened to Isabel's death in 1504) he was owed half of the portion of such property.

We asume that the son of Fernando and Germana de Foix survives, so, Juan inherits Aragon, so separate ways to Castilla and Aragon. Could Juan reclaim the middle of the "indias"?
 
I suspect the answer is only if he had the military strength to force his claim - not necessarily meaning marching an army and occupying Valladolid (Castilian capital) etc but being able to plant colonies, defend them with men and ships in America, and protect his trade lanes as well. This would require the resources of a large country, and that is something I don't think he would have.

I think a simple legal challenge would just be laughed out of court.
 
Top