Could Revolutionary France avoid war

In otl it seems to me that many of the bad features of the revolutionary regime were linked to being at war.

Could the revolution have managed to not go to war.

I looked up wiki and it seemed that France had been provoked but had declared war
 
The Revolutionary regime used the war to hide some of their more unpleasent aspects from the population, and I think they wanted war to force the country to unite behind them.
 
The Revolutionary regime used the war to hide some of their more unpleasent aspects from the population, and I think they wanted war to force the country to unite behind them.

Crap. War was technically declared by France, but the ultimatum given by Austria and Prussia was pretty clear : gave back all the power to the king or be invaded.
 
Crap. War was technically declared by France, but the ultimatum given by Austria and Prussia was pretty clear : gave back all the power to the king or be invaded.

This. I would say that the coalised armies were already organised for an intervention, with the benediction of the "émigrés" in Coblenz (as the active part of Louis XVI for calling to war while helping the other kings).

The Pillnitz Declaration is pretty clear about how the other monarchies were ready to crush the revolutionary processes.

The same could be said for most part of Napoleonic wars. They were more forced to than actually eager to fight.
 
Did war help to mask certain aspects of Rev. France? If so, he's effectively correct.

The problem is that war created the aspect that were masked by these conflicts under the usual "It's war, so we have to carry on".
Conscription, Shortages, ruin of north-eastern fields, requisitions...

So except if the Jacobins were able to violate the causality...No, it didn't was declared for that.
 
I was always under the impression that the Declaration of Pilnitz was meant more as something to stop the emigres from moaning and the Prussians were surprised when the French government took it so seriously.
 
I was always under the impression that the Declaration of Pilnitz was meant more as something to stop the emigres from moaning and the Prussians were surprised when the French government took it so seriously.

Not really. It's why the Russia finally ended its war with Ottomans, that the king of Sweden declared he would take the command of the army.

The Prussians were actually more cautious, yes, and wanted "only" to threaten enough the french to make them cancel many reforms. But they didn't made it only for the émigrés. They tried to both maintain a balance between the ones that wanted to go to war immediately and the ones that wanted to use that to make their power grow in Europe. It happened that, by playing the "middle" and the "entente", they were less busy with French Revolution than the others.

But they were still really worry about it, and the peasant revolt that happened one year before in Saxony was an actual issue.

It's not really an ultimatum, but it's already a declaration of principle against Revolution, its principles and about the capacity of European monarchies to unite themselves against them.

From France, it looked like "Stop it now, give his former power to the king and to the nobles, or we could be less kind".
 
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