Could a Persian-Arabic pidgin become an official language?

I could be remembering wrong, but I thought English lost its inflected grammar and so on through contact with Norse in the Danelaw. I’ve read at least one linguistic text calling English a creole based on that, though I suspect that’s stretching the definition.
Correct. English is not a creole.
However, it does show limited signs of creolization, as does Modern Persian (loss of gender in noun agreement, simplification of the verbal system, extensive lexical borrowing, etc.). Similar phenomena occur in the vast majority of Arabic spoken varieties (to a lesser extent, in most Romance as well). It is probably too simplistic to talk about language contact as the only cause, but it has a significant role.
Also, Modern English and Modern Persian do show some structural similarities that can be understood as convergent evolutions, especially in the verbal system: for instance, both developed an analytic future tense with an auxiliary meaning "will", and both display a generally similar structure of past tenses (though in this case, most of Germanic and Romance work roughly the same way, while Slavic generally does not, nor Latin or Ancient Greek; I have no idea about the rest of modern Indo-European, but my understanding is that Iranian in general differs from Modern Persian).
 
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@Intransigent Southerner

Semitic is more or less a name given to languages similar to Arabic, Hebrew, and Aramaic. The reason for their differences, despite their similarities, is due to the migration of Semitic speakers from the Levant to Mesopotamia, Arabia, the Horn of Africa, Egypt, and North Africa although both Egypt and North Africa spoke Afro-Asiatic languages rather than (and I say this word loosely) "conventional" Semitic. Furthermore, Elamite language could be considered to be a creole given it's Indo-European and Akkadian (or Semitic) roots.

Mix is not quite the word I'm alluding to, I am not taking parts of the grammar of Persian and Arabic and gluing them together to form some Frankenstein abomination. As I have stated, what I want is synthesis. The definition of synthesis I am using is similar to that of Chemistry's. Synthesis, if you don't remember from 10th grade, is the production of a chemical compound from simpler elements/atoms/materials by reaction (I don't remember either). For the sake of this discussion I will take this concept and apply it to my idea substituting "chemical compound" for "creole" and the two "elements" with Arabic and Persian. This would mean that the two languages would synthesize to become something truly original while retaining the same spirits of both.
 
The reason for their differences, despite their similarities, is due to the migration of Semitic speakers from the Levant to Mesopotamia, Arabia, the Horn of Africa, Egypt, and North Africa although both Egypt and North Africa spoke Afro-Asiatic languages rather than (and I say this word loosely) "conventional" Semitic.
Having a substrate doesn’t make a language a creole. Ancient Greek isn’t a creole, for example, even though it has clearly non-IE words.

Elamite language could be considered to be a creole given it's Indo-European and Akkadian (or Semitic) roots.
Elamite is an isolate which, so far as we know, is unrelated to and be very grammatically different from either IE or AA languages.

This would mean that the two languages would synthesize to become something truly original while retaining the same spirits of both.
Still not sure here. Do you mean something like very upper- class Ottoman Turkish, where Persian grammatical elements were quite significant? But Ottoman Turkish certainly wasn’t a creole.
 
So, ignoring terminology, what the OP is requesting is a constructed language made from Arabic and Persian. One that is deliberately designed to be the administrative and trade language.

Assuming that is the case my first thought is why? Plenty of administrative languages have been heavily affected by others to the point of affecting vocabulary and grammar changes [1] but none appear to have been deliberately designed even if the uptake was deliberate [2].
There needs to be good reasons why the language is needed and why it has support. Usually this would be where the language sphere is composed of multiple language groups and one cannot dominate the others (e.g. India uses English to maintain unity) and unity is needed.

In the example given where there's a only Persian temporal power and Arabic spiritual power there is no impetus for a conlang, both languages have their undisputed sphere of influence and moving to another would be disruptive. What will happen will be the entry of Arabic terms into Persian and Arabicisation of Persian words where needed. Compare what happened in the Holy Roman Empire with (High) German and (Church) Latin.

[1] Old English already had a lot of latinate words due to Church Latin, Ottoman Turkish and Persian included Arabic ones, Latin took up Greek words due to Alexander's conquests spreading Greek as an administrative language, etc.
[2] such as the use of Latin and (Latinised) Greek for science terms, the application of grammar rules such as avoiding split infinitives based on Latin etc.
 
@Intransigent Southerner

Semitic was more than a mere substrate to the various languages of Mesopotamia. Semitic didn't become dominant in the region instantly. It took several hundreds of years of contact with other languages until the different Semitic languages were formed and most of them were formed not through a centralized power, but at a local level. And the languages that came from them didn't just derive from Semitic, it derived mostly from the various local languages that existed at the time, resulting in a "original" language.

That is correct, I didn't not know this. I give my deepest apologies.

No. I meant a language which incorporates both Arabic and Persian to give arise to something entirely different.

@The Professor

You mostly right, however it isn't a conlang, it's developed in a local level and is given official status as a language. Furthermore, the Arabs have more than just a spiritual role which is a change from OTL and thus, do have powers which may step over the boundaries of temporal while the Persians also have some power in the spiritual realm, not just temporal power.

However overall this was a good post and I learned a lot of things which could help me in the TL I'm making. I appreciate the time and energy it must've took you to write such a high-quality post.
 
I don't understand. Pidgins are created for two peoples who speak different languages to effectively communicate with one another. This won't piss off Persians and Arabs, given how the Buyid Empire encompasses both Arab and Persian demographics, a pidgin would be the natural result of this multiculturalism. All I am doing is taking that potential pidgin and turning it into a creole which would then gain official status.

My point was: People wouldn't like it if they had to replace their native language by it.
 
@Max Sinister

The government isn't forcing the language unto the population. This is a pidgin, and if people begin to speak it more frequently than their native language (especially if their children are more exposed to it than their native language) then no one would dislike because most of the population are people who are replacing it in the first place. Arabs and Persians will perpetuate the creole voluntarily because it is pragmatic. Like I and The Professor have said, it would primarily be a trade language used between locals, merchants, and local government officials who have to deal with different ethnicity on a daily basis. Eventually the pidgin would transition a creole, becoming a widely used language amongst the booming urban centers and towns of the Buyyid Empire.

By this point, the creole would be the de facto official language. Arabic and Persian would only be spoken in villages, isolated from society and in households with ties to traditional Arab tribes or ancient Persian nobility.
 
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